HESI Exit Exam Question QBank, Test 2

Study with our HESI Exit Exam Question Qbank, Test 2. The questions include answers and detailed explanations. HESI Exit nursing topics including priorities of care, health promotion and maintenance, safe and effective care, and basic care and comfort. Treatments and nursing management for acute renal failiure, chronic renal failiure, critical labs, rhabdomyolysis, UTI, glomerulonephriis, BPH, prostatitis, cystitis, incontinence, urinary retention, urinary obstruction, renal cancer, prostate cancer, ovarian cancer, breast cancer, cystic fibrosis, IVP, cystoscopy, urinary diversions, ileal conduit, continuous bladder irrigation, and high yield NCLEX medications. Achieve your best grade on the HESI Exit Exam!
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A 50-year-old male patient has undergone transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). Continuous bladder irrigation has been initiated postoperatively. What is the primary purpose of continuous bladder irrigation following a TURP procedure?

A. To prevent urinary retention
B. To promote urinary continence
C. To provide pain relief
D. To prevent blood clot formation in the bladder

Continuous bladder irrigation following a TURP procedure is primarily performed to prevent blood clot formation in the bladder, which can obstruct urinary flow.

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A 60-year-old patient has a urinary catheter in place and is receiving continuous bladder irrigation due to bladder surgery. The patient’s urine output has decreased significantly, and the nurse suspects a potential issue. What should the nurse assess for as a possible complication of continuous bladder irrigation?

A. Dehydration
B. Infection
C. Hemorrhage
D. Urinary retention

Urinary retention is a potential complication of continuous bladder irrigation, and the nurse should monitor the patient’s urine output and assess for signs of obstruction.

Urinary system, NCLEX, AANP ANCC, HESI EXIT
UTI, Acute Cystitis, Pyelonephritis

A 55-year-old patient is receiving continuous bladder irrigation with a three-way indwelling urinary catheter following bladder surgery. The patient reports severe lower abdominal pain. What action should the nurse take?

A. Administer pain medication as ordered
B. Increase the rate of bladder irrigation
C. Discontinue bladder irrigation immediately
D. Document the pain and continue bladder irrigation

Severe lower abdominal pain in a patient receiving continuous bladder irrigation may indicate bladder distention or other complications. Discontinuing bladder irrigation and notifying the healthcare provider is essential for assessment and intervention.

Prostatatitis, bph, NCLEX, AANP ANCC, HESI EXIT
Prostate Disorders Nursing Management

HESI Exit Exam Questions Critical Thinking: Bladder Symptoms

A 70-year-old patient is receiving continuous bladder irrigation with normal saline. The nurse notes that the irrigation fluid is red and bloody. What should the nurse do first?

A. Increase the irrigation flow rate
B. Check for kinks or obstructions in the tubing
C. Notify the healthcare provider
D. Document the finding as normal

When the irrigation fluid appears bloody, the nurse should first check for kinks or obstructions in the tubing, as this could be causing the issue before notifying the healthcare provider.

HESI Exit Exam Review: Bladder Disease Treatments

An 80-year-old patient is receiving continuous bladder irrigation for the management of bladder tumors. The patient’s urine output has increased significantly, and there is concern about fluid and electrolyte balance. What assessment should the nurse prioritize?

A. Skin turgor and moisture
B. Blood pressure and heart rate
C. Respiratory rate and oxygen saturation
D. Urine specific gravity and electrolyte levels

When a patient’s urine output increases significantly during continuous bladder irrigation, assessing urine specific gravity and electrolyte levels is essential to monitor for potential imbalances.

A 55-year-old patient with advanced bladder cancer is scheduled for an ileal conduit procedure. What is the primary purpose of an ileal conduit in this case?

A. To store urine inside the bladder
B. To create a continent urinary reservoir
C. To improve urinary continence
D. To divert urine to a stoma on the abdominal wall

An ileal conduit is a surgical procedure that diverts urine from the bladder to a stoma on the abdominal wall, allowing for the elimination of urine externally.

HESI Exit Exam Focus Exploring Bladder Cancer: Causes and Diagnosis

A 60-year-old patient has undergone an ileal conduit surgery. The patient is concerned about managing this new way of eliminating urine. How should the nurse educate the patient about postoperative care?

A. Empty the conduit whenever it is convenient
B. Use a catheter to remove urine from the conduit
C. Schedule regular intervals for conduit emptying
D. Allow the conduit to fill to maximum capacity before emptying

Patients with ileal conduits should be educated to schedule regular intervals for emptying the conduit to prevent overfilling and discomfort.

HESI Exit Exam Questions: Focus on Medications for Bladder Disorders

A 65-year-old patient has had an ileal conduit created following bladder removal due to cancer. The patient is experiencing skin irritation around the stoma site. What should the nurse advise the patient regarding stoma care?

A. Apply adhesive directly to the irritated skin
B. Use alcohol-based products for stoma cleaning
C. Keep the skin around the stoma dry and clean
D. Avoid any contact with the stoma

Proper stoma care includes keeping the skin around the stoma dry and clean to prevent irritation and complications.

Medical Surgical Nursing Questions, Urinary tract infection, UTI, NCLEX, ANCC AANP
Symptoms of UTI include dysuria, urinary frequency, urgency, and suprapubic pain.

HESI Exit Exam Practice Questions: Understanding Urinary Tract Infections Causes and Symptoms

A 70-year-old patient has an ileal conduit and is experiencing recurrent urinary tract infections (UTIs). What advice should the nurse provide to minimize the risk of UTIs in this patient?

A. Avoid drinking fluids to reduce urine production
B. Limit intake of acidic foods and beverages
C. Use a catheter to remove urine from the conduit
D. Maintain good hygiene and empty the conduit regularly
A. To increase bladder capacity
B. To improve urinary continence
C. To create a continent urinary reservoir
D. To divert urine to a stoma on the abdominal wall

An ileal conduit is a urinary diversion that involves diverting urine to a stoma on the abdominal wall, allowing for the elimination of urine externally.

Understanding Urinary Tract Infections: Causes and Symptoms

A 60-year-old patient has undergone a continent urinary diversion procedure (e.g., Indiana pouch) following bladder removal due to cancer. The patient is concerned about managing this new way of eliminating urine. How should the nurse educate the patient about postoperative care?

A. Empty the pouch whenever it is convenient
B. Use a catheter to remove urine from the pouch
C. Schedule regular intervals for pouch emptying
D. Allow the pouch to fill to maximum capacity before emptying

Patients with continent urinary diversions, such as the Indiana pouch, should be educated to schedule regular intervals for emptying the pouch to prevent overfilling and discomfort.

Understanding the Urinary Tract Infections: HESI Exit Exam Delegation Questions

A 65-year-old patient has had a urinary diversion with a neobladder constructed following bladder removal due to cancer. The patient is experiencing continuous urine leakage and is distressed. What should the nurse explain to the patient about the neobladder?

A. Continuous urine leakage is normal and expected
B. The neobladder requires catheterization for urine elimination
C. Kegel exercises can help improve urinary control
D. The patient should avoid all fluids to prevent leakage

Patients with a neobladder may experience urine leakage initially, but Kegel exercises can help strengthen pelvic muscles and improve urinary control over time.

A 45-year-old male patient presents with recurrent urinary tract infections (UTIs). His healthcare provider recommends a cystoscopy to investigate the cause. During cystoscopy, what instrument is typically used to examine the bladder lining and urethra?

A. Endoscope
B. Stethoscope
C. Otoscope
D. Sphygmomanometer

An endoscope is typically used during cystoscopy to examine the bladder lining and urethra, helping to diagnose recurrent UTIs.

A 50-year-old female patient is scheduled for a cystoscopy to evaluate urinary incontinence. What should the nurse educate the patient about regarding pre-procedure instructions?

A. Emptying the bladder before the procedure
B. Fasting for 24 hours
C. Avoiding fluid intake for 48 hours
D. Taking a laxative

Patients undergoing cystoscopy are often instructed to empty their bladder before the procedure to provide a clearer view of the urinary tract.

Understanding the Urinary Tract Infections: HESI Exit Exam Priority Questions

A 55-year-old patient has just completed a cystoscopy, and the nurse is monitoring for potential complications. Which of the following symptoms may indicate an adverse reaction to the procedure?

A. Mild discomfort at the insertion site
B. Increased appetite
C. Severe abdominal pain and hematuria
D. Clear urine

Severe abdominal pain and hematuria can be indicative of an adverse reaction or complication following a cystoscopy and should be reported promptly.

A 60-year-old patient is concerned about the discomfort associated with cystoscopy. What can the nurse advise the patient regarding pain management during the procedure?

A. Pain medications are not typically used during cystoscopy
B. Over-the-counter pain relievers can be taken before the procedure
C. A local anesthetic is applied to the urethra before cystoscopy
D. Intravenous sedation is administered for pain relief
IVP, pyelogram, NCLEX, AANP ANCC, HESI EXIT
Intravenous Pyelogram (IVP), Kidney anatomy

A 45-year-old female patient is scheduled for an IVP to assess possible urinary obstruction. What should the nurse instruct the patient to do before the procedure to prepare for IVP?

A. Fasting for 24 hours
B. Drinking plenty of water
C. Emptying the bladder
D. Taking a laxative

Prior to an IVP, patients are typically instructed to drink plenty of water to ensure proper hydration and optimal imaging of the urinary system.

A 55-year-old patient has just undergone an IVP, and the nurse is monitoring for potential complications. Which of the following symptoms may indicate an adverse reaction to the contrast medium used in IVP?

A. Mild thirst
B. Increased urine output
C. Itching and hives
D. Muscle cramps

Itching and hives are potential signs of an adverse reaction to the contrast medium used in IVP. Nurses should closely monitor patients for such symptoms and report them promptly.

A 60-year-old patient is scheduled for an IVP to assess kidney function. The nurse should assess the patient’s medical history for any contraindications, particularly related to which condition?

A. Hypertension
B. Diabetes
C. Allergies
D. Asthma

Patients with diabetes may have impaired kidney function, and the nurse should assess their medical history for contraindications or special precautions before an IVP.

A 65-year-old patient has completed an IVP, and the nurse is providing post-procedure care. What instructions should the nurse give to the patient regarding fluid intake?

A. Restrict fluid intake
B. Drink plenty of fluids
C. Only sip water
D. Avoid all fluids

After an IVP, patients are often encouraged to drink plenty of fluids to help flush the contrast medium from their system and reduce the risk of complications.

A 45-year-old female patient presents with abdominal discomfort and a palpable mass in the lower abdomen. Imaging reveals a large cystic mass in the ovary. What is the most common type of cystic ovarian cancer?

A. Mucinous carcinoma
B. Endometrioid carcinoma
C. Serous carcinoma
D. Clear cell carcinoma

Serous carcinoma is the most common type of cystic ovarian cancer, often presenting with abdominal discomfort and cystic masses.

Ovarian Cancer, NCLEX, AANP ANCC, HESI EXIT
Ovarian Cancer Nursing Management

A 50-year-old female patient has been diagnosed with cystic ovarian cancer and is scheduled for surgery. What surgical procedure is commonly performed as part of the treatment for this condition?

A. Appendectomy
B. Cholecystectomy
C. Oophorectomy
D. Colectomy

Oophorectomy, the removal of one or both ovaries, is commonly performed as part of the treatment for cystic ovarian cancer to remove the source of the disease.

A 55-year-old patient with cystic ovarian cancer is undergoing chemotherapy. What side effect of chemotherapy should the nurse monitor for in this patient?

A. Hypotension
B. Vision changes
C. Nausea and vomiting
D. Joint pain

Nausea and vomiting are common side effects of chemotherapy in patients with cystic ovarian cancer, and supportive care is essential to manage these symptoms.

A 60-year-old patient with a history of cystic ovarian cancer presents with abdominal pain and discomfort. Imaging reveals fluid accumulation in the peritoneal cavity. What is this condition called?

A. Ascites
B. Hematuria
C. Pyuria
D. Dysuria

Fluid accumulation in the peritoneal cavity, often seen in patients with cystic ovarian cancer, is called ascites and can lead to abdominal discomfort.

A 45-year-old female patient presents with abdominal bloating, pelvic pain, and changes in bowel habits. Imaging studies reveal a pelvic mass. What is the most common type of ovarian cancer?

A. Mucinous carcinoma
B. Endometrioid carcinoma
C. Serous carcinoma
D. Clear cell carcinoma

Serous carcinoma is the most common type of ovarian cancer, often presenting with abdominal symptoms and pelvic masses.

A 50-year-old female patient has been diagnosed with advanced ovarian cancer and is scheduled for surgery. What surgical procedure is commonly performed as part of the treatment for advanced ovarian cancer?

A. Hysterectomy
B. Mastectomy
C. Oophorectomy
D. Debridement

Oophorectomy, the removal of one or both ovaries, is commonly performed as part of the treatment for advanced ovarian cancer to remove the source of the cancer.

A 55-year-old patient with ovarian cancer is undergoing chemotherapy. What side effect of chemotherapy should the nurse monitor for in this patient?

A. Bradycardia
B. Hair loss
C. Hypertension
D. Increased appetite

Hair loss (alopecia) is a common side effect of chemotherapy in patients with ovarian cancer, and the nurse should provide support and education regarding this potential side effect.

A 60-year-old patient with a history of ovarian cancer presents with abdominal pain and distension, and imaging reveals fluid accumulation in the peritoneal cavity. What is this condition called?

A. Ascites
B. Hematuria
C. Pyuria
D. Dysuria

Fluid accumulation in the peritoneal cavity, often seen in patients with ovarian cancer, is called ascites and can lead to abdominal pain and distension.

A 65-year-old patient is receiving palliative care for advanced ovarian cancer. What is a key goal of palliative care in this patient population?

A. Cure the cancer
B. Provide emotional support
C. Promote physical activity
D. Encourage dietary changes

Palliative care in patients with advanced ovarian cancer focuses on providing comfort, emotional support, and improving the quality of life, as the goal is not to cure the cancer but to enhance the patient’s well-being.

A 65-year-old male patient presents with urinary frequency, nocturia, and difficulty starting and stopping the urine stream. Digital rectal examination (DRE) reveals an enlarged, nontender prostate. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)
B. Prostate cancer
C. Urinary tract infection (UTI)
D. Bladder dysfunction

This patient’s symptoms and findings on DRE are suggestive of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH), a noncancerous enlargement of the prostate gland.

A 72-year-old male patient has been diagnosed with prostate cancer. The nurse is providing education about treatment options. Which treatment is often considered the first-line option for localized prostate cancer with a good prognosis?

A. Chemotherapy
B. Radical prostatectomy
C. Palliative care
D. Hormone therapy (androgen deprivation therapy)

For localized prostate cancer with a good prognosis, radical prostatectomy is often considered the first-line treatment option to remove the cancerous prostate gland.

Understanding the Prostate Cancer: HESI Exit Exam Priority Questions

A 60-year-old patient has just undergone a radical prostatectomy for prostate cancer. What potential complication should the nurse monitor for in the immediate postoperative period?

A. Hypertension
B. Hypoglycemia
C. Hemorrhage
D. Pneumonia

Hemorrhage is a potential complication after a radical prostatectomy, and the nurse should closely monitor the surgical site for bleeding.

A 68-year-old patient with advanced prostate cancer is receiving hormone therapy (androgen deprivation therapy). What is the primary goal of this treatment?

A. Cure the cancer
B. Prevent urinary tract infections
C. Relieve pain and manage symptoms
D. Improve lung function

Hormone therapy (androgen deprivation therapy) is primarily used to relieve pain and manage symptoms in patients with advanced prostate cancer.

A 70-year-old patient with prostate cancer is scheduled for external beam radiation therapy. What should the nurse include in the pre-radiation teaching for this patient?

A. Encourage frequent voiding
B. Advise against dietary changes
C. Recommend aggressive physical activity
D. Emphasize the importance of daily sun exposure

Prior to external beam radiation therapy for prostate cancer, the nurse should encourage the patient to empty their bladder frequently to minimize bladder distension and improve treatment accuracy.

A 60-year-old male patient presents with flank pain, hematuria, and unintentional weight loss. Imaging reveals a solid renal mass. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Kidney stone
B. Urinary tract infection (UTI)
C. Renal cancer (Renal cell carcinoma)
D. Benign renal cyst

This patient’s presentation, including flank pain, hematuria, and unintentional weight loss, is concerning for renal cancer, specifically renal cell carcinoma.

A 50-year-old female patient with a history of smoking presents with left-sided flank pain and gross hematuria. Imaging shows a solid mass in the left kidney. What is the initial diagnostic test of choice?

A. Complete blood count (CBC)
B. Urinalysis
C. Abdominal ultrasound
D. Electrocardiogram (ECG)

Abdominal ultrasound is the initial imaging test of choice to evaluate renal masses and identify whether they are solid or cystic.

A 55-year-old male patient has been diagnosed with renal cell carcinoma (RCC). Which of the following is a common clinical feature associated with RCC?

A. Recurrent urinary tract infections
B. Hypertension
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Bradycardia

Hypertension is a common clinical feature associated with renal cell carcinoma (RCC) due to the production of renin by the tumor.

A 65-year-old female patient is scheduled for a radical nephrectomy to treat renal cancer. What is the primary goal of this surgical procedure?

A. To relieve flank pain
B. To cure the cancer
C. To prevent urinary tract infections
D. To improve renal function

The primary goal of a radical nephrectomy is to remove the cancerous kidney and potentially cure the cancer, particularly in localized cases.

A 70-year-old male patient has undergone a nephrectomy for renal cancer. What nursing care should be prioritized postoperatively?

A. Monitoring blood glucose levels
B. Managing hypertension
C. Assessing respiratory status
D. Evaluating joint mobility

After a nephrectomy, assessing respiratory status is a priority to detect and prevent potential postoperative respiratory complications such as atelectasis and pneumonia.

A 55-year-old male patient presents with sudden severe flank pain, hematuria, and urinary urgency. Imaging shows a stone lodged in the ureter. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Urinary tract infection
B. Urethral stricture
C. Ureteral calculus (stone)
D. Bladder cancer

This patient’s presentation is consistent with a ureteral calculus (stone) causing urinary obstruction, leading to severe pain, hematuria, and urgency.

A 70-year-old female patient with a history of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) complains of difficulty initiating and stopping the urinary stream. Which diagnostic test may help confirm the diagnosis of BPH?

A. Urinalysis
B. Renal ultrasound
C. Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test
D. Creatinine clearance test

The PSA test is a helpful diagnostic tool in assessing prostate conditions such as BPH. Elevated PSA levels may indicate BPH or prostate cancer.

A 45-year-old female patient presents with lower abdominal pain, dysuria, and urinary frequency. Urinalysis reveals the presence of white blood cells and bacteria. What is the likely diagnosis?

A. Urethral stricture
B. Bladder cancer
C. Urinary tract infection (UTI)
D. Ureteral calculus (stone)

This patient’s symptoms and urinalysis findings are consistent with a urinary tract infection (UTI), a common cause of lower abdominal pain and dysuria.

A 60-year-old male patient with a history of smoking presents with painless hematuria. Imaging reveals a tumor within the bladder. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Urethral stricture
B. Bladder cancer
C. Ureteral calculus (stone)
D. Prostate hyperplasia

Painless hematuria in a patient with a history of smoking is concerning for bladder cancer, which is often detected through imaging studies.

A 65-year-old male patient complains of difficulty starting and stopping the urinary stream, as well as nocturia. Digital rectal examination (DRE) reveals an enlarged, non-tender prostate. What condition is most likely?

A. Urethral stricture
B. Bladder cancer
C. Prostate hyperplasia (BPH)
D. Ureteral calculus (stone)

This patient’s clinical presentation, including an enlarged, non-tender prostate on DRE, is indicative of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH), a common cause of urinary obstruction in older males.

A 65-year-old male patient presents to the emergency department with lower abdominal pain, a distended bladder, and an inability to pass urine for the past 12 hours. What is the most likely cause of his urinary retention?

A. Stress incontinence
B. Overflow incontinence
C. Reflex incontinence
D. Urge incontinence

This patient likely has overflow incontinence due to urinary retention, where the bladder becomes overfilled and distended because it cannot empty properly.

A 50-year-old female patient who recently had surgery reports a sudden inability to void her bladder. Which medication may be administered to promote bladder emptying in this situation?

A. Diuretics
B. Alpha-1 blockers
C. Anticholinergic medications
D. Opioid analgesics

Alpha-1 blockers can be administered to promote bladder emptying in situations of urinary retention by relaxing the smooth muscle of the bladder neck and prostate.

A 70-year-old male patient with a history of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) complains of difficulty starting and stopping the urinary stream. What is the term for this symptom commonly associated with BPH?

A. Dysuria
B. Hematuria
C. Nocturia
D. Hesitancy

The term for the symptom of difficulty starting and stopping the urinary stream, commonly associated with BPH, is hesitancy.

A 60-year-old patient is experiencing acute urinary retention. What is the immediate intervention that should be performed to relieve this condition?

A. Administer diuretics
B. Encourage increased fluid intake
C. Insert a urinary catheter
D. Administer alpha-1 blockers

Immediate intervention for acute urinary retention involves the insertion of a urinary catheter to relieve the obstruction and empty the bladder.

A 45-year-old patient experiences urinary retention after receiving spinal anesthesia for surgery. What is the term for this type of urinary retention, which is often transient and related to anesthesia?

A. Chronic urinary retention
B. Reflex urinary retention
C. Acute urinary retention
D. Temporary urinary retention

This type of urinary retention, often transient and related to anesthesia, is referred to as temporary urinary retention.

A 70-year-old female patient complains of involuntary loss of urine when she laughs or sneezes. Which type of incontinence is she likely experiencing?

A. Urge incontinence
B. Overflow incontinence
C. Stress incontinence
D. Functional incontinence

This patient is likely experiencing stress incontinence, which is characterized by the involuntary loss of urine during activities that increase intra-abdominal pressure, such as laughing or sneezing.

A 65-year-old male patient with a history of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) experiences frequent urination and urgency. What is the first-line pharmacological treatment for his condition?

A. Anticholinergic medications
B. Alpha-1 blockers
C. Antibiotics
D. Opioid analgesics

Alpha-1 blockers are the first-line pharmacological treatment for the symptoms of BPH, including frequent urination and urgency.

A 55-year-old patient is diagnosed with urge incontinence. Which class of medications is commonly used to treat this type of incontinence by relaxing the bladder muscle and reducing urgency?

A. Antidiabetic medications
B. Diuretics
C. Anticholinergic medications
D. Opioids

Anticholinergic medications are commonly used to treat urge incontinence by relaxing the bladder muscle and reducing urgency.

A 75-year-old patient with dementia frequently experiences incontinence due to cognitive impairment. What non-pharmacological interventions can help manage incontinence in this patient population?

A. Increased fluid intake
B. Timed voiding schedule
C. Encourage caffeine consumption
D. Use of laxatives

A timed voiding schedule, along with other non-pharmacological interventions, can help manage incontinence in patients with cognitive impairment, such as dementia.

A 50-year-old female patient experiences incontinence after a pelvic surgery. What type of incontinence may result from surgical damage to the pelvic floor muscles?

A. Stress incontinence
B. Overflow incontinence
C. Reflex incontinence
D. Functional incontinence

Surgical damage to the pelvic floor muscles can result in stress incontinence, where activities that increase intra-abdominal pressure lead to urine leakage.

A 30-year-old female patient presents with urinary frequency, dysuria, and suprapubic discomfort. She mentions a recent history of sexual intercourse. Which of the following is the most likely causative organism for her symptoms?

A. Escherichia coli (E. coli)
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Escherichia coli (E. coli) is the most common causative organism for uncomplicated cystitis, especially in sexually active women.

A 45-year-old male patient with a history of BPH (Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia) presents with symptoms of cystitis, including dysuria and urinary urgency. What should be considered when assessing and treating cystitis in this patient?

A. Perform a prostatectomy
B. Administer intravenous antibiotics
C. Evaluate for urinary tract obstruction
D. Prescribe hormonal therapy

Assessment for urinary tract obstruction is important in male patients with cystitis, especially those with BPH, to ensure proper management and prevent complications.

A 25-year-old pregnant patient complains of cystitis symptoms, including burning with urination. What is the safest antibiotic choice for treating cystitis in pregnant women?

A. Tetracycline
B. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX)
C. Nitrofurantoin
D. Ciprofloxacin

Nitrofurantoin is considered one of the safest antibiotic choices for treating cystitis in pregnant women due to its limited systemic absorption.

Understanding the BPH: HESI Exit Exam Priority Questions

A 60-year-old male patient with diabetes presents with severe cystitis symptoms and fever. What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?

A. Outpatient oral antibiotics
B. No treatment is necessary
C. Hospitalization and intravenous antibiotics
D. Immediate surgery

Patients with severe cystitis symptoms, especially those with underlying conditions like diabetes, may require hospitalization and intravenous antibiotics.

A 40-year-old patient with a history of recurrent cystitis asks about strategies to prevent future episodes. What non-pharmacological measures can you recommend?

A. Limit fluid intake
B. Avoid urinating after sexual intercourse
C. Decrease fiber intake

A 65-year-old male patient presents with frequent urination, hesitancy, and a weak urine stream. His digital rectal exam reveals an enlarged prostate. Which class of medications is commonly prescribed to relieve his symptoms?

A. Antibiotics
B. Alpha-1 blockers
C. Anticoagulants
D. Antipyretics

Alpha-1 blockers are commonly prescribed to relieve the urinary symptoms associated with BPH by relaxing the prostate and bladder neck muscles.

A 70-year-old patient with BPH is experiencing nocturia and incomplete bladder emptying. Which medication class helps improve bladder emptying by relaxing smooth muscle in the prostate and bladder neck?

A. Beta blockers
B. Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs)
C. 5-alpha reductase inhibitors
D. Cholinergic agonists

5-alpha reductase inhibitors help improve bladder emptying by reducing the size of the prostate gland.

A 75-year-old patient with BPH is concerned about sexual dysfunction as a side effect of medication. Which class of drugs may cause sexual side effects such as decreased libido and erectile dysfunction?

A. Diuretics
B. Statins
C. Alpha-1 blockers
D. Phosphodiesterase type 5 inhibitors (PDE5 inhibitors)

Alpha-1 blockers may cause sexual side effects such as decreased libido and erectile dysfunction in some patients.

An 80-year-old patient with BPH is prescribed a combination medication that includes both an alpha-1 blocker and a 5-alpha reductase inhibitor. What is the rationale for this combination therapy?

A. To prevent urinary tract infections
B. To reduce the risk of prostate cancer
C. To treat erectile dysfunction
D. To maximize symptomatic relief and reduce prostate size

Combination therapy with both alpha-1 blockers and 5-alpha reductase inhibitors aims to maximize symptomatic relief and reduce the size of the prostate gland.

A 65-year-old male patient presents with frequent urination, hesitancy, and a weak urine stream. His digital rectal exam reveals an enlarged prostate. Which class of medications is commonly prescribed to relieve his symptoms?

A. Antibiotics
B. Alpha-1 blockers
C. Anticoagulants
D. Antipyretics

Alpha-1 blockers are commonly prescribed to relieve the urinary symptoms associated with BPH by relaxing the prostate and bladder neck muscles.

A 70-year-old patient with BPH is experiencing nocturia and incomplete bladder emptying. Which medication class helps improve bladder emptying by relaxing smooth muscle in the prostate and bladder neck?

A. Beta blockers
B. Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs)
C. 5-alpha reductase inhibitors
D. Cholinergic agonists

5-alpha reductase inhibitors help improve bladder emptying by reducing the size of the prostate gland.

A 75-year-old patient with BPH is concerned about sexual dysfunction as a side effect of medication. Which class of drugs may cause sexual side effects such as decreased libido and erectile dysfunction?

A. Diuretics
B. Statins
C. Alpha-1 blockers
D. Phosphodiesterase type 5 inhibitors (PDE5 inhibitors)

Alpha-1 blockers may cause sexual side effects such as decreased libido and erectile dysfunction in some patients.

An 80-year-old patient with BPH is prescribed a combination medication that includes both an alpha-1 blocker and a 5-alpha reductase inhibitor. What is the rationale for this combination therapy?

A. To prevent urinary tract infections
B. To reduce the risk of prostate cancer
C. To treat erectile dysfunction
D. To maximize symptomatic relief and reduce prostate size

Combination therapy with both alpha-1 blockers and 5-alpha reductase inhibitors aims to maximize symptomatic relief and reduce the size of the prostate gland.

A 68-year-old patient is concerned about the cost of BPH medications. Which class of medications is often more affordable and may be considered as an alternative for managing BPH symptoms?

A. Alpha-1 blockers
B. 5-alpha reductase inhibitors
C. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
D. Herbal supplements

Herbal supplements are often more affordable and may be considered as an alternative for managing BPH symptoms in some patients.

A 35-year-old male patient presents with hematuria, proteinuria, and hypertension. His laboratory results show elevated serum creatinine levels. What is the most likely cause of these findings?

A. Urinary tract infection (UTI)
B. Acute pyelonephritis
C. Glomerulonephritis
D. Kidney stones

The patient’s presentation of hematuria, proteinuria, hypertension, and elevated creatinine levels is suggestive of glomerulonephritis.

A 40-year-old female patient with a recent streptococcal infection develops glomerulonephritis. Which type of glomerulonephritis is most commonly associated with post-streptococcal infection?

A. Membranous glomerulonephritis
B. Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
C. IgA nephropathy
D. Acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis

Acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis is the most common type of glomerulonephritis associated with recent streptococcal infections.

A 50-year-old patient with glomerulonephritis experiences periorbital edema and hypertension. Which dietary restriction is important for managing these symptoms?

A. Protein restriction
B. Fat restriction
C. Carbohydrate restriction
D. Sodium restriction

Sodium restriction is essential for managing hypertension and edema in patients with glomerulonephritis.

A 60-year-old patient with glomerulonephritis complains of dark urine and foamy appearance. What is the likely cause of foamy urine in this patient?

A. Excessive water intake
B. High protein intake
C. Hematuria
D. Proteinuria

Foamy urine in this patient is likely due to proteinuria, a common symptom of glomerulonephritis.

A 55-year-old patient with glomerulonephritis is prescribed angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors. What is the primary therapeutic effect of ACE inhibitors in this patient?

A. Pain relief
B. Diuretic effect
C. Blood pressure control
D. Antibiotic effect

ACE inhibitors are prescribed to control blood pressure and reduce proteinuria in patients with glomerulonephritis.

A 25-year-old female patient presents with symptoms of a UTI, including dysuria and frequency. What is the first-line antibiotic treatment for uncomplicated cystitis in young, healthy women?

A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Amoxicillin
C. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX)
D. Vancomycin

Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) is the first-line antibiotic for uncomplicated cystitis in young, healthy women.

A 50-year-old male patient with a UTI is prescribed nitrofurantoin. What should the nurse monitor for when administering nitrofurantoin?

A. Elevated blood pressure
B. Pulmonary toxicity
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Allergic reactions

Nitrofurantoin use should be monitored for signs of pulmonary toxicity, which can include cough, dyspnea, and chest pain.

A 35-year-old pregnant patient with a UTI is prescribed antibiotics. Which antibiotic is commonly used as a safe option during pregnancy for UTI treatment?

A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Doxycycline
C. Amoxicillin
D. Tetracycline

Amoxicillin is commonly used during pregnancy for UTI treatment as it is considered safe for both the mother and the fetus.

A 60-year-old male patient with a UTI is prescribed fosfomycin. What is the mechanism of action of fosfomycin?

A. Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
B. Disruption of DNA replication
C. Inhibition of protein synthesis
D. Inhibition of bacterial cell wall synthesis

Fosfomycin disrupts bacterial DNA replication, making it an effective treatment for UTIs.

A 45-year-old female patient with a UTI is prescribed phenazopyridine. What is the primary purpose of phenazopyridine in UTI management?

A. Antibiotic therapy
B. Pain relief
C. Fluid replacement
D. Antifungal treatment

Phenazopyridine is used to provide pain relief and relieve urinary symptoms associated with UTIs, such as burning and urgency.

A 30-year-old female patient presents with dysuria, frequent urination, and lower abdominal pain. She reports a history of UTIs. What is the most likely causative agent for her current UTI?

A. E. coli
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Streptococcus pneumoniae
D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

The most common causative agent of uncomplicated UTIs in women is Escherichia coli (E. coli).

A 65-year-old male patient with a UTI is prescribed antibiotics. Which antibiotic is commonly used as the first-line treatment for uncomplicated UTIs?

A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Penicillin G
C. Vancomycin
D. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX)

TMP-SMX is commonly used as the first-line treatment for uncomplicated UTIs due to its effectiveness against common UTI pathogens.

A 50-year-old male patient with a UTI reports flank pain and fever. What complication of UTI should the nurse suspect in this patient?

A. Hematuria
B. Pyelonephritis
C. Cystitis
D. Urethritis

Flank pain and fever are indicative of pyelonephritis, a more serious complication of UTI that involves infection of the kidneys.

A 40-year-old female patient is experiencing recurrent UTIs. What preventive measures can the nurse recommend to reduce the risk of recurrent UTIs?

A. Avoiding fluid intake
B. Frequent voiding
C. Reducing fiber intake
D. Decreasing vitamin C intake

Recommendations for reducing the risk of recurrent UTIs include frequent voiding, staying hydrated, and maintaining good hygiene practices.

A 55-year-old male patient with a UTI is prescribed phenazopyridine. What is the primary purpose of phenazopyridine in UTI management?

A. Antibiotic therapy
B. Pain relief
C. Fluid replacement
D. Antifungal treatment

Phenazopyridine is used to provide pain relief and relieve urinary symptoms associated with UTIs, such as burning and urgency.

35-year-old male patient presents to the emergency department with severe muscle pain, dark urine, and swelling. He recently participated in a strenuous workout. What condition should the nurse suspect?

A. Osteoporosis
B. Rhabdomyolysis
C. Anaphylaxis
D. Migraine

The patient’s symptoms, including muscle pain, dark urine, and swelling, are indicative of rhabdomyolysis, a condition characterized by muscle breakdown.

A 45-year-old female patient with rhabdomyolysis is at risk for a potentially life-threatening complication. Which complication should the nurse monitor closely in this patient?

A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypoglycemia
C. Hypertension
D. Hypernatremia

Rhabdomyolysis can lead to hyperkalemia due to the release of intracellular potassium from damaged muscle tissue, which can result in cardiac arrhythmias and other serious complications.

A 28-year-old athlete is admitted with rhabdomyolysis. The nurse knows that myoglobinuria is a hallmark sign of this condition. What is the significance of myoglobinuria in rhabdomyolysis?

A. It causes hypocalcemia
B. It results in alkalosis
C. It can lead to acute kidney injury
D. It causes metabolic acidosis

Myoglobinuria in rhabdomyolysis can lead to the obstruction of renal tubules, potentially causing acute kidney injury due to the toxic effects of myoglobin on the kidneys.

A 50-year-old patient is being treated for rhabdomyolysis. What is the primary goal of treatment in rhabdomyolysis?

A. Pain management
B. Fluid resuscitation
C. Antibiotic therapy
D. Psychiatric counseling

The primary goal of treatment in rhabdomyolysis is fluid resuscitation to prevent kidney damage by flushing out myoglobin and maintaining adequate renal perfusion.

A 60-year-old patient with rhabdomyolysis is prescribed sodium bicarbonate. What is the rationale for administering sodium bicarbonate in this case?

A. To lower blood pressure
B. To increase blood glucose levels
C. To prevent metabolic acidosis
D. To treat bacterial infection

Sodium bicarbonate is administered to prevent metabolic acidosis, which can occur due to the release of lactic acid from damaged muscle tissue in rhabdomyolysis.

A 55-year-old patient with chronic renal failure presents with muscle weakness, fatigue, and cardiac dysrhythmias. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly associated with these symptoms?

A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hyponatremia
C. Hypocalcemia
D. Hyperphosphatemia

Muscle weakness, fatigue, and cardiac dysrhythmias are common symptoms of hyperkalemia, which can occur in chronic renal failure due to impaired potassium excretion.

A 60-year-old patient with chronic renal failure is experiencing confusion, irritability, and muscle twitching. What electrolyte imbalance should the nurse assess for?

A. Hypernatremia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypercalcemia
D. Hypermagnesemia

Confusion, irritability, and muscle twitching are signs of hypermagnesemia, which can occur in chronic renal failure when magnesium is not properly excreted.

A 70-year-old patient with chronic renal failure complains of numbness and tingling in the extremities. Which electrolyte imbalance might be responsible for these symptoms?

A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypernatremia
C. Hypocalcemia
D. Hyperphosphatemia

Numbness and tingling in the extremities can result from hypocalcemia, which can occur in chronic renal failure due to impaired calcium metabolism.

A 50-year-old patient with chronic renal failure is prescribed a low-phosphorus diet. What is the rationale behind this dietary recommendation?

A. To prevent hyperkalemia
B. To reduce hypercalcemia
C. To manage metabolic acidosis
D. To control hyperphosphatemia

A low-phosphorus diet is recommended to control hyperphosphatemia in chronic renal failure, as impaired kidney function can lead to elevated phosphate levels.

A 65-year-old patient with chronic renal failure is at risk for an electrolyte imbalance that can lead to bone demineralization. Which imbalance should the nurse monitor closely in this patient?

A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hyponatremia
C. Hypocalcemia
D. Hyperphosphatemia

Hyperphosphatemia is a concern in chronic renal failure as it can lead to bone demineralization, contributing to the risk of fractures and bone disease.

A 65-year-old patient with a history of hypertension and diabetes presents with symptoms of chronic renal failure. What is the most common cause of chronic renal failure in this patient population?

A. Polycystic kidney disease
B. Glomerulonephritis
C. Hypertensive nephrosclerosis
D. Obstructive uropathy

The most common cause of chronic renal failure in patients with hypertension and diabetes is hypertensive nephrosclerosis, which leads to progressive kidney damage.

A 55-year-old patient with chronic renal failure is prescribed a low-protein diet. What is the rationale behind this dietary recommendation?

A. To prevent anemia
B. To reduce hyperkalemia
C. To manage metabolic acidosis
D. To minimize azotemia

A low-protein diet is recommended for patients with chronic renal failure to minimize azotemia, which helps reduce the buildup of nitrogenous waste products in the blood.

A 70-year-old patient with chronic renal failure complains of pruritus. What is the common skin manifestation associated with chronic renal failure, and what interventions can provide relief?

A. Erythema
B. Petechiae
C. Urticaria
D. Xerosis

Xerosis (dry skin) is a common skin manifestation in patients with chronic renal failure. Relief can be provided through emollient creams and maintaining adequate hydration.

A 50-year-old patient with chronic renal failure is prescribed phosphate binders. What is the purpose of these medications, and how should they be taken?

A. To reduce potassium levels; take with meals
B. To lower calcium levels; take on an empty stomach
C. To control phosphorus levels; take with meals
D. To increase sodium levels; take on an empty stomach

Phosphate binders are used in chronic renal failure to control phosphorus levels and should be taken with meals to bind dietary phosphate.

A 60-year-old patient with chronic renal failure is scheduled for hemodialysis. What is the primary goal of hemodialysis, and how does it achieve this goal?

A. To correct anemia; by removing excess potassium
B. To reduce blood pressure; by removing excess calcium
C. To remove waste products and excess fluid; through an artificial kidney (dialyzer)
D. To improve taste perception; by adjusting electrolyte levels

The primary goal of hemodialysis is to remove waste products and excess fluid from the blood through an artificial kidney (dialyzer), helping to manage chronic renal failure.

A 55-year-old patient with end-stage renal disease (ESRD) is undergoing peritoneal dialysis. Which type of peritoneal dialysis solution contains dextrose and is used for the dwell phase?

A. Isotonic solution
B. Hypertonic solution
C. Hypotonic solution
D. Sterile water

A hypertonic peritoneal dialysis solution contains dextrose and is used for the dwell phase to help remove waste products and excess fluid.

A 60-year-old patient on peritoneal dialysis experiences abdominal pain and cloudy peritoneal effluent. What should the nurse suspect?

A. Adequate dialysis
B. Peritonitis
C. Normal peritoneal effluent
D. Improved kidney function

Cloudy peritoneal effluent and abdominal pain in a patient on peritoneal dialysis may indicate peritonitis, a serious infection that requires prompt treatment.

A 50-year-old patient on peritoneal dialysis asks about dietary restrictions. What dietary advice should the nurse provide to this patient?

A. Increase protein intake
B. Limit potassium-rich foods
C. Consume a high-phosphorus diet
D. Follow a low-sodium diet

Patients on peritoneal dialysis should follow a low-sodium diet to help manage blood pressure and reduce fluid retention.

A 45-year-old patient on peritoneal dialysis is experiencing catheter-related exit site infection. What is the appropriate nursing action?

A. Administer oral antibiotics
B. Discontinue peritoneal dialysis
C. Apply a cold compress to the exit site
D. Notify the healthcare provider and start appropriate interventions

If a patient on peritoneal dialysis has a catheter-related exit site infection, the nurse should notify the healthcare provider and initiate appropriate interventions, which may include antibiotic therapy.

A 65-year-old patient on peritoneal dialysis complains of constipation. What nursing intervention can help alleviate this symptom?

A. Administer a laxative
B. Increase fluid intake
C. Limit dietary fiber
D. Decrease physical activity

Increasing fluid intake can help alleviate constipation in a patient on peritoneal dialysis by promoting bowel regularity.

A 60-year-old patient with end-stage renal disease (ESRD) is scheduled for hemodialysis. Which vascular access site is commonly used for long-term hemodialysis?

A. Intravenous (IV) catheter
B. Peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC)
C. Arteriovenous fistula (AVF)
D. Subclavian catheter

An arteriovenous fistula (AVF) is commonly used for long-term hemodialysis as it provides a durable and reliable vascular access site.

A 45-year-old patient is undergoing hemodialysis for the first time. What should the nurse monitor closely during the hemodialysis procedure?

A. Blood pressure and heart rate
B. Oxygen saturation and respiratory rate
C. Electrolyte levels and fluid balance
D. Skin color and temperature

During hemodialysis, the nurse should closely monitor electrolyte levels and fluid balance to prevent complications such as hypotension or electrolyte imbalances.

A 50-year-old patient on hemodialysis complains of muscle cramps during the procedure. What nursing intervention can help alleviate this symptom?

A. Administer a pain reliever
B. Apply a warm compress to the cramping area
C. Increase the rate of dialysis
D. Administer an anticoagulant

Increasing the rate of dialysis can help alleviate muscle cramps in a patient undergoing hemodialysis by improving the removal of metabolic waste products.

A 55-year-old patient on hemodialysis presents with signs of infection at the vascular access site. What is the appropriate nursing action?

A. Apply a warm compress to the site
B. Administer oral antibiotics
C. Discontinue hemodialysis immediately
D. Notify the healthcare provider and start appropriate interventions

If a patient on hemodialysis presents with signs of infection at the vascular access site, the nurse should notify the healthcare provider and initiate appropriate interventions, such as administering antibiotics as ordered.

A 35-year-old patient receiving hemodialysis asks the nurse about dietary restrictions. What dietary advice should the nurse provide to this patient?

A. Limit protein intake
B. Increase potassium-rich foods
C. Avoid fluids between dialysis sessions
D. Consume a low-phosphorus diet

A patient receiving hemodialysis should follow a low-phosphorus diet to help manage phosphorus levels and reduce the risk of complications associated with ESRD.

A 60-year-old patient is diagnosed with acute renal failure. The healthcare provider prescribes intravenous (IV) fluids. Which type of IV fluid is most appropriate for this patient?

A. Normal saline
B. 5% dextrose in water (D5W)
C. Lactated Ringer’s solution
D. Hypertonic saline

Normal saline is the most appropriate IV fluid for a patient with acute renal failure as it helps maintain electrolyte balance without adding additional solutes.

A 45-year-old patient with acute renal failure is experiencing fluid overload. Which diuretic is commonly used to manage fluid overload in this patient?

A. Furosemide (Lasix)
B. Hydrochlorothiazide
C. Spironolactone
D. Metoprolol

Furosemide (Lasix) is a loop diuretic commonly used to manage fluid overload in patients with acute renal failure by promoting diuresis.

A 50-year-old patient with acute renal failure is at risk for hyperkalemia. Which dietary restriction should the nurse recommend to minimize potassium intake?

A. Limit protein intake
B. Avoid carbohydrates
C. Restrict sodium intake
D. Limit potassium-rich foods

To minimize potassium intake and reduce the risk of hyperkalemia, the nurse should recommend limiting potassium-rich foods in the diet.

A 55-year-old patient with acute renal failure is receiving hemodialysis. What is the primary purpose of hemodialysis in this patient?

A. To administer IV fluids
B. To prevent infection
C. To remove waste products and excess fluids
D. To maintain blood pressure

The primary purpose of hemodialysis in a patient with acute renal failure is to remove waste products and excess fluids from the blood when the kidneys are unable to do so adequately.

A 35-year-old patient with acute renal failure is prescribed a phosphate binder. What is the rationale for this medication?

A. To lower blood pressure
B. To reduce pain
C. To prevent hyperkalemia
D. To control serum phosphate levels

Phosphate binders are prescribed to control serum phosphate levels in patients with acute renal failure.