HESI Exit Exam Questions, Qbank Test 3

Study with our free HESI Exit Exam Questions, Qbank Test 3. The questions include answers and detailed explanations. HESI Exit nursing topics focus on critical thinking, priorities of care, health promotion and maintenance, safe and effective care, and basic care and comfort, treatments and nursing management. Achieve your best grade on the HESI Exit Exam!
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A patient who underwent a mastectomy is scheduled for drain removal. The nurse should instruct the patient to take which action before drain removal?

A. Pull the drain out gently
B. Empty the drain bulb
C. Remove the dressing covering the drain
D. Ignore the drain until it falls off naturally

Explanation: Before drain removal, the patient should be instructed to empty the drain bulb to maintain proper suction and prevent discomfort during removal. This should be done as per the healthcare provider’s instructions.

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During postoperative care after a mastectomy, the nurse should prioritize which intervention to prevent complications?

A. Encourage deep breathing exercises
B. Promote arm exercises
C. Administer pain medication regularly
D. Keep the room temperature cool

Explanation: Encouraging deep breathing exercises is a priority to prevent postoperative complications such as pneumonia. It helps maintain lung function and prevents respiratory complications.

A patient who had a mastectomy is concerned about the appearance of the surgical scar. What advice should the nurse provide to address this concern?

A. Recommend immediate scar revision surgery
B. Encourage massaging the scar with lotion daily
C. Instruct the patient to keep the scar covered with a bandage at all times
D. Provide information on scar care and options for scar management

Explanation: Providing information on scar care and options for scar management is essential. Scar management may include silicone gel sheets, compression garments, and other strategies to improve the scar’s appearance.

HESI Exit Exam Questions Critical Thinking: Breast Cancer Symptoms

While caring for a patient after mastectomy, the nurse notices a change in skin color, swelling, and warmth in the affected arm. What condition should the nurse suspect?

A. Lymphedema
B. Phlebitis
C. Hematoma
D. Infection

Explanation: Phlebitis is characterized by redness, warmth, swelling, and tenderness along the path of a vein. It is essential to monitor and report these signs promptly to prevent complications.

After a mastectomy, a patient expresses fear of disfigurement. What is the nurse’s most appropriate response to address this fear?

A. Tell the patient that the fear is irrational
B. Provide emotional support and encourage open communication
C. Offer immediate reconstructive surgery
D. Dismiss the patient’s concerns as normal postoperative anxiety

Explanation: Providing emotional support and encouraging open communication is essential in addressing the patient’s fear of disfigurement. It validates the patient’s feelings and allows for discussion and coping strategies.

HESI Exit Exam Review: Breast Disease Treatments

A 50-year-old female patient has recently undergone a lumpectomy for breast cancer. She expresses concern about the appearance of her breast after surgery. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?

A. “Your breast will look the same as before the surgery.”
B. “The appearance may change temporarily, but it will improve over time.”
C. “You should consider immediate breast reconstruction.”
D. “Don’t worry about it; appearance doesn’t matter.”

Explanation: It is essential to provide reassurance and accurate information to the patient. The appearance of the breast may change temporarily due to swelling and healing, but it typically improves over time.

HESI Exit Exam Focus Exploring Cancer: Causes and Diagnosis

During the postoperative period following a lumpectomy, the nurse should prioritize which of the following interventions to prevent complications?

A. Administering pain medication as needed
B. Monitoring vital signs every 4 hours
C. Encouraging arm exercises
D. Assessing for signs of infection

Explanation: Assessing for signs of infection is a priority to prevent complications. Infection can delay healing and result in more significant problems post-lumpectomy.

After a lumpectomy, a patient reports numbness and tingling in the arm on the affected side. What is the nurse’s most appropriate action?

A. Administer pain medication
B. Elevate the arm and apply cold packs
C. Reassure the patient that this is normal
D. Assess for signs of infection or nerve damage

Explanation: Numbness and tingling could indicate nerve damage or other complications. Assessing the patient for signs of infection or nerve damage is crucial for appropriate intervention.

A patient is scheduled for a lumpectomy tomorrow. What preoperative education should the nurse provide to the patient?

A. “Expect a long hospital stay after surgery.”
B. “You’ll have limited arm movement after the surgery.”
C. “Breastfeeding will not be possible after the procedure.”
D. “You will likely be discharged on the same day as the surgery.”

Explanation: Lumpectomy is typically an outpatient procedure, and patients are often discharged on the same day. Providing this information helps

HESI Exit Exam Practice Questions: Understanding Acute Kidney Injury Causes and Symptoms

A 65-year-old male patient was admitted to the medical-surgical unit with dehydration. The nurse is assessing the patient’s urine output to monitor hydration status. Which finding should the nurse be most concerned about?

A. Urine output of 30 mL/hour
B. Urine output of 60 mL/hour
C. Urine output of 90 mL/hour
D. Urine output of 120 mL/hour

Explanation: A urine output of 30 mL/hour is a critical finding and indicates severe dehydration. The nurse should be most concerned about this low urine output as it may lead to organ damage if not addressed promptly.

A postoperative patient has a urinary catheter in place to monitor urine output. The nurse notices that the urine output suddenly decreases significantly. What action should the nurse take first?

A. Notify the healthcare provider
B. Increase the rate of IV fluids
C. Flush the urinary catheter with saline
D. Re-position the patient

Explanation: The first action the nurse should take is to re-position the patient. Sometimes, kinks or pressure on the catheter can obstruct urine flow. If this doesn’t resolve the issue, further assessment and notification of the healthcare provider may be needed.

Respiratory NCLEX Questions, PNEUMONIA

Understanding Acute Kidney Injury: Causes and Symptoms

A patient with heart failure is receiving diuretic therapy. The nurse is monitoring urine output to assess the effectiveness of the diuretic. What is the most important parameter to evaluate?

A. Urine color
B. Urine pH
C. Urine specific gravity
D. Total urine volume

Explanation: When assessing the effectiveness of diuretic therapy, the total urine volume is the most important parameter to evaluate. It indicates how well the diuretic is promoting fluid removal.

Urinary tract foley catheter, NCLEX, ANCC, AANP
Foley Catheter

Understanding Acute Kidney Injury: HESI Exit Exam Delegation Questions

A postoperative patient has a urinary catheter in place, and the nurse is documenting urine output. The nurse notices that the urine output is cloudy. What action should the nurse take?

A. Increase the rate of IV fluids
B. Collect a urine sample for culture and sensitivity
C. Add cranberry juice to the IV fluids
D. Document the finding as normal

Explanation: Cloudy urine may indicate a urinary tract infection (UTI). The nurse should collect a urine sample for culture and sensitivity to determine if an infection is present and guide appropriate treatment.

A patient with chronic kidney disease is being monitored for urine output to assess renal function. What is the most important parameter for the nurse to evaluate in this patient?

A. Urine color
B. Urine odor
C. Urine electrolyte levels
D. Urine creatinine clearance

Explanation: In a patient with chronic kidney disease, urine creatinine clearance is the most important parameter to evaluate as it provides insight into the kidney’s ability to filter waste products from the blood.

A 70-year-old female patient presents with urinary incontinence, which has significantly impacted her quality of life. The nurse is discussing bladder training as a potential intervention. What is the primary goal of bladder training?

A. To increase fluid intake
B. To promote frequent urination
C. To strengthen pelvic muscles
D. To increase the time between urination

Explanation: The primary goal of bladder training is to increase the time between urination, allowing the patient to regain control over their bladder and reduce episodes of incontinence.

Varicose veins, nurse practitioner exam, spider veins, DVT
Lower extremity venous insufficiency and spider veins

Understanding Acute Kidney Injury: HESI Exit Exam Priority Questions

A 40-year-old patient with bleeding varicose veins is prescribed vasopressin. What important nursing assessment should be performed before and during vasopressin administration?

A. Assess urine output and fluid balance
B. Monitor blood glucose levels
C. Evaluate lung sounds
D. Measure intracranial pressure

Explanation: Before and during vasopressin administration, it is essential to assess urine output and fluid balance to prevent fluid overload, a potential side effect of vasopressin.

Renal Failure Nursing Diagnosis
Renal failure receiving hemodialysis

A 65-year-old patient with a history of chronic kidney disease (CKD) is admitted with a severe infection and prescribed antibiotics. Which antibiotic should be used cautiously in this patient due to its nephrotoxic potential?

A. Amoxicillin
B. Ciprofloxacin
C. Doxycycline
D. Azithromycin

Explanation: Ciprofloxacin should be used cautiously in patients with CKD due to its nephrotoxic potential. Renal function should be monitored closely during therapy.

A 55-year-old patient is receiving vancomycin for a severe staphylococcal infection. Which parameter should be closely monitored to prevent vancomycin-induced nephrotoxicity?

A. Liver function tests
B. Blood pressure
C. Serum vancomycin levels
D. Heart rate

Explanation: To prevent vancomycin-induced nephrotoxicity, serum vancomycin levels should be monitored regularly to ensure therapeutic levels without reaching toxic concentrations.

Understanding Acute Kidney Injury: HESI Exit Exam Priority Questions

A 40-year-old patient with a urinary tract infection (UTI) is prescribed gentamicin. What nursing assessment is crucial before starting gentamicin therapy?

A. Respiratory rate
B. Allergy history
C. Skin integrity
D. Baseline renal function

Explanation: Before starting gentamicin therapy, it is crucial to assess the patient’s baseline renal function, as gentamicin can be nephrotoxic.

A 30-year-old pregnant patient is diagnosed with a bacterial infection and requires antibiotics. Which antibiotic should be avoided during pregnancy due to its potential for causing renal damage in the developing fetus?

A. Penicillin
B. Erythromycin
C. Tetracycline
D. Clindamycin

Explanation: Tetracycline should be avoided during pregnancy as it can cause renal damage in the developing fetus and is contraindicated in pregnancy.

A 25-year-old patient is prescribed trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) for a urinary tract infection. Which patient education is essential regarding TMP-SMX and its potential effects on the kidneys?

A. “You may experience diarrhea, which is a common side effect.”
B. “Increase your fluid intake to prevent kidney stones.”
C. “You may notice a yellow discoloration of your urine, which is harmless.”
D. “Take the medication on an empty stomach for better absorption.”

Explanation: Patients taking TMP-SMX should be advised to increase their fluid intake to prevent the formation of kidney stones, a potential side effect of the medication.

HESI Exit Exam Questions: Focus on Medications for Acute Kidney Injury

A 58-year-old patient is scheduled for a coronary angiography to assess for coronary artery disease. The healthcare provider plans to use a radiographic dye during the procedure. Which renal function assessment is essential before administering the dye?

A. Blood pressure measurement
B. Electrocardiogram (ECG) monitoring
C. Serum creatinine and glomerular filtration rate (GFR)
D. Oxygen saturation levels

Explanation: It is crucial to assess renal function by measuring serum creatinine and GFR before administering radiographic dye to ensure that the kidneys can adequately filter and eliminate the dye without causing renal damage.

A 45-year-old patient with a history of allergies is scheduled for a computed tomography (CT) scan with contrast dye. The patient is allergic to shellfish. Which precaution is necessary before the CT scan?

A. Administer an antipyretic medication
B. Apply a topical anesthetic
C. Administer an antihistamine
D. Provide prophylactic antibiotics

Explanation: Due to the patient’s shellfish allergy, premedication with an antihistamine can help reduce the risk of an allergic reaction to the contrast dye during the CT scan.

A 65-year-old patient is undergoing a renal angiography with the use of radiographic dye. During the procedure, the patient experiences severe chest pain, dyspnea, and hypotension. What could be the cause of these symptoms?

A. Anxiety
B. Normal reaction to dye
C. Allergic reaction to dye
D. Muscle cramps

Explanation: Severe chest pain, dyspnea, and hypotension during a procedure involving radiographic dye may indicate an allergic reaction to the dye. Immediate intervention is required to manage this potentially life-threatening condition.

GI Questions, NCLEX, AANC, AANP, upper GI, small bowel follow-through
Upper GI with small bowel follow-through exam

A 50-year-old patient is scheduled for a barium swallow study. Which action is essential before the procedure?

A. Administer an analgesic
B. Ensure the patient is NPO (nothing by mouth)
C. Instruct the patient to eat a heavy meal
D. Apply a heat pack to the abdomen

Explanation: Before a barium swallow study, it is essential to ensure that the patient is NPO to prevent ingestion of food or liquids that could interfere with the procedure or cause complications.

A 60-year-old patient is scheduled for an intravenous urogram (IVU) using radiographic contrast dye. The patient has a history of diabetes and is taking metformin. What precaution is necessary regarding metformin?

A. Increase the metformin dose
B. Continue metformin as usual
C. Discontinue metformin for 48 hours before the procedure
D. Administer metformin immediately before the procedure

Explanation: Metformin should be discontinued for 48 hours before a procedure involving radiographic contrast dye to reduce the risk of lactic acidosis, especially in patients with diabetes.

A 65-year-old patient is admitted with a severe bacterial infection requiring intravenous (IV) antibiotics. While preparing to administer the IV antibiotic, the nurse notices that the patient has a known allergy to penicillin. What is the nurse’s immediate action?

A. Administer the penicillin-based antibiotic slowly
B. Withhold the antibiotic and inform the healthcare provider
C. Administer the antibiotic and closely monitor for an allergic reaction
D. Administer an antihistamine before the antibiotic

Explanation: The immediate action should be to withhold the antibiotic and inform the healthcare provider about the patient’s penicillin allergy to determine an alternative antibiotic regimen.

A 50-year-old patient is receiving IV chemotherapy for the treatment of cancer. During the infusion, the patient complains of sudden chest pain and shortness of breath. What should the nurse do first?

A. Document the patient’s complaint
B. Administer oxygen to the patient
C. Slow down the chemotherapy infusion rate
D. Stop the chemotherapy infusion immediately

Explanation: Sudden chest pain and shortness of breath during IV chemotherapy may indicate an infusion reaction or anaphylaxis. Stopping the infusion is the priority to ensure patient safety.

A 30-year-old patient is receiving IV heparin for the treatment of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). The nurse needs to assess the patient’s coagulation status. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor?

A. Complete Blood Count (CBC)
B. Prothrombin Time (PT)
C. Serum Creatinine
D. Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN)

Explanation: Prothrombin Time (PT) is used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy and assess the patient’s coagulation status. It helps ensure that the patient is within the therapeutic range to prevent bleeding or clotting complications.

NCLEX, AANP, ANCC Questions, Test tube
Test tubes, CBC, PT, PTT, Chemistry

A 40-year-old patient is receiving IV vancomycin for a severe bacterial infection. The nurse notes that the patient’s IV site is red, swollen, and warm to the touch. What action should the nurse take?

A. Apply a warm compress to the IV site
B. Discontinue the IV infusion
C. Increase the vancomycin infusion rate
D. Administer an antipyretic medication

Explanation: Redness, swelling, and warmth at the IV site may indicate phlebitis or infection. The nurse’s priority is to discontinue the IV infusion and assess the patient’s condition to prevent complications.