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A patient with a femoral fracture is prescribed traction as part of their treatment. Which type of traction is most commonly used for femoral fractures?
A. Skin traction
B. Skeletal traction
C. Buck’s extension traction
D. Russell’s traction
Explanation: For femoral fractures, skeletal traction is most commonly used. Skeletal traction involves the use of pins or wires inserted directly into the bone to provide stability and alignment. It is often the preferred method for managing fractures in the femur due to its effectiveness in reducing and maintaining proper alignment.
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When using skeletal traction for a fracture, where are the pins or wires typically inserted?
A. In the surrounding soft tissue
B. In the joint space
C. Directly into the bone
D. In the skin
Explanation: When using skeletal traction, pins or wires are typically inserted directly into the bone. This provides a secure and stable attachment point for the traction system, allowing for proper alignment and immobilization of the fractured bone.
In which type of traction does the patient’s body weight and positioning help maintain alignment and traction force?
A. Skin traction
B. Skeletal traction
C. Buck’s extension traction
D. Russell’s traction
Explanation: Skin traction relies on the patient’s body weight and positioning to maintain alignment and traction force. It is a less invasive form of traction where the traction force is applied through a bandage or tape applied to the skin, typically on the affected limb. This method is often used for short-term traction.
Which type of traction is often used for fractures of the distal radius (wrist)?
A. Skin traction
B. Skeletal traction
C. Buck’s extension traction
D. Russell’s traction
Explanation: Buck’s extension traction is often used for fractures of the distal radius (wrist). It involves extending the arm with the wrist in a dorsiflexed position to immobilize and align the fractured bone.
When should Russell’s traction be considered for a patient with a lower limb fracture?
A. For all lower limb fractures
B. For fractures requiring minimal immobilization
C. For fractures requiring maximum immobilization
D. For fractures of the upper limb only
Explanation: Russell’s traction should be considered for lower limb fractures that require minimal immobilization. It is a form of skin traction where traction force is applied through a bandage or tape on the skin. Russell’s traction is often used for fractures that don’t require as much traction force or immobilization as other methods.
A 45-year-old individual presents with persistent bone pain and unexplained fractures. Imaging studies reveal a mass within the bone tissue. What is the most likely type of bone cancer in this case?
A. Osteosarcoma
B. Chondrosarcoma
C. Ewing’s sarcoma
D. Multiple myeloma
Explanation: In this case, the patient’s presentation with bone pain and unexplained fractures is more indicative of multiple myeloma, which is a cancer of the plasma cells in the bone marrow. Osteosarcoma, chondrosarcoma, and Ewing’s sarcoma are other types of bone cancer, but they typically present with different clinical features.
A 30-year-old individual presents with a rapidly growing mass in the soft tissues surrounding a bone. Biopsy reveals small, round, blue cells. What type of bone cancer is likely in this case?Answer
A. Osteosarcoma
B. Chondrosarcoma
C. Ewing’s
. Multiple myeloma
Explanation: The presence of rapidly growing mass with small, round, blue cells is characteristic of Ewing’s sarcoma, which primarily affects the soft tissues surrounding bones, especially in young individuals. It is an aggressive bone cancer that often requires multidisciplinary treatment.
In bone cancer, what is the primary imaging modality used for diagnosis and staging?
A. X-ray
B. CT scan
C. MRI
D. Ultrasound
Explanation: In bone cancer diagnosis and staging, CT (computed tomography) scans are the primary imaging modality of choice. CT scans provide detailed images of the bones, allowing for the assessment of tumor size, location, and extent of involvement.
A patient with severe arthritis in their knee joint is considering joint replacement surgery. Which type of joint replacement is most commonly performed for knee arthritis?
A. Total hip replacement
B. Total shoulder replacement
C. Total knee replacement
D. Total elbow replacement
Explanation: Total knee replacement (TKR) is the most commonly performed joint replacement surgery for severe knee arthritis. It involves replacing the damaged knee joint with a prosthetic joint to improve pain and restore function.
Which of the following materials is commonly used for the artificial components in joint replacement prostheses due to its durability and biocompatibility?
A. Glass
B. Wood
C. Plastic
D. Metal
Explanation: Metal, typically titanium or cobalt-chromium alloys, is commonly used for the artificial components in joint replacement prostheses due to its durability, strength, and biocompatibility with the human body.
After a total hip replacement (THR) surgery, what is the most common precaution to prevent hip dislocation during the early recovery period?
A. Avoiding all weight-bearing activities
B. Sleeping on the operated side
C. Crossing the legs while sitting
D. Avoiding hip flexion beyond 90 degrees
Explanation: To prevent hip dislocation after total hip replacement (THR), patients are advised to avoid hip flexion beyond 90 degrees and internal rotation of the hip during the early recovery period. This helps maintain the stability of the new hip joint.
Which of the following activities should be encouraged as part of the rehabilitation process after joint replacement surgery to improve joint mobility and strength?
A. Remaining completely sedentary
B. Avoiding all physical therapy
C. Early ambulation and physical therapy
D. Avoiding any movement for at least a year
Explanation: After joint replacement surgery, early ambulation and physical therapy are encouraged to improve joint mobility and strength. Remaining sedentary for an extended period can lead to complications, and early movement aids in the recovery process.
What is the primary goal of joint replacement surgery for patients with advanced joint disease?
A. Cosmetic improvement
B. Maintaining joint instability
C. Eliminating all postoperative pain
D. Reducing pain and improving joint function
Explanation: The primary goal of joint replacement surgery for patients with advanced joint disease is to reduce pain and improve joint function. While some cosmetic improvement may result from the procedure, the primary focus is on enhancing the patient’s quality of life by restoring mobility and relieving pain.
A patient with severe peripheral vascular disease presents with non-healing ulcers and gangrene in their lower limb. What is the most common indication for lower limb amputation in this case?
A. Traumatic injury
B. Congenital deformity
C. Malignant tumor
D. Peripheral vascular disease
Explanation: In this case, the most common indication for lower limb amputation is peripheral vascular disease (PVD). PVD can lead to severe tissue damage, non-healing ulcers, and gangrene due to poor blood circulation in the lower limb, often necessitating amputation to prevent further complications.
What is the surgical procedure called when a limb is removed at the level of the ankle joint?
A. Hemiarthroplasty
B. Below-the-knee amputation
C. Hip arthrodesis
D. Syme amputation
Explanation: When a limb is removed at the level of the ankle joint, it is referred to as a Syme amputation. This procedure is often performed to preserve the weight-bearing surface of the foot and provide better prosthetic fitting options.
Which of the following is a common complication following amputation surgery and occurs due to the contraction of muscles and soft tissues?
A. Phantom limb pain
B. Neuropathy
C. Hematoma
D. Contracture
Explanation: Contracture is a common complication following amputation surgery. It occurs when muscles and soft tissues contract and become stiff, leading to limited joint mobility. Proper post-operative rehabilitation is essential to prevent contractures.
Which of the following prosthetic components is designed to replace the missing part of a limb and restore function?
A. Socket
B. Suspension system
C. Prosthetic foot
D. Liner
Explanation: The prosthetic foot is designed to replace the missing part of a limb and restore function. It plays a crucial role in providing stability, support, and mobility to the amputee.
What is the primary goal of amputation surgery in cases of severe limb trauma?
A. Cosmetic improvement
B. Maintaining limb length
C. Preventing infection
D. Saving the patient’s life
Explanation: The primary goal of amputation surgery in cases of severe limb trauma is to save the patient’s life. In such cases, amputation may be necessary to control bleeding, prevent infection, and ultimately ensure the patient’s survival.
A patient sustained a deep burn injury that has resulted in the loss of full-thickness skin. What type of skin graft involves the transfer of both the epidermis and dermis layers?
A. Split-thickness graft
B. Full-thickness graft
C. Mesh graft
D. Pinch graft
Explanation: A full-thickness skin graft involves the transfer of both the epidermis and dermis layers. It is often used for areas where preserving the appearance and function of the skin is crucial, such as the face or hands.
Which type of skin graft is typically meshed to increase its coverage area and allow for fluid drainage?
A. Split-thickness
B. Full-thickness graft
C. Mesh graft
D. Pinch graft
Explanation: A mesh graft is typically used to increase its coverage area by creating a mesh-like pattern. This allows for fluid drainage and expansion, making it suitable for large wound areas that need coverage.
In which type of skin graft is only the epidermis and a portion of the dermis transferred, leaving the donor site with a superficial wound?
Explanation: A split-thickness skin graft involves the transfer of only the epidermis and a portion of the dermis. This leaves the donor site with a superficial wound that typically heals more easily compared to a full-thickness graft donor site.
What is the primary advantage of using an autograft in skin grafting procedures?
Explanation: The primary advantage of using an autograft (skin from the patient’s own body) in skin grafting procedures is the potential for an enhanced cosmetic outcome. Autografts are typically well-tolerated by the patient’s immune system and result in a more natural appearance and texture.
When is a pinch graft used in skin grafting procedures?
Explanation: A pinch graft is often used when rapid coverage is needed, especially for small to moderately sized wounds. It involves the transfer of a small piece of skin, which can be obtained quickly and applied to the wound site for prompt healing.
A patient sustained a burn injury characterized by redness, pain, and swelling of the affected area. This type of burn injury primarily affects the epidermis. What is the classification of this burn?
Explanation: The burn described, characterized by redness, pain, and swelling of the epidermis, is a first-degree burn. First-degree burns are superficial and primarily affect the top layer of the skin without damaging deeper tissues.
A burn injury involving damage to the epidermis and dermis layers, with symptoms such as blisters, pain, and swelling, is classified as:
Explanation: A burn involving damage to both the epidermis and dermis layers, with symptoms such as blisters, pain, and swelling, is classified as a second-degree burn. These burns can be painful and may require medical attention for proper wound care.
Which of the following burn classifications involves damage to the epidermis, dermis, and underlying tissues, often resulting in white or charred appearance?
Explanation: A third-degree burn involves damage to the epidermis, dermis, and underlying tissues. These burns often result in a white or charred appearance and can be less painful due to damage to nerve endings. They are serious and typically require medical intervention, such as skin grafts.
What is the immediate first-aid step recommended for treating a minor burn injury?
Explanation: The immediate first-aid step for treating a minor burn injury is to cover the burn with a clean, dry cloth or sterile dressing. This helps protect the burn from infection and prevents further damage. Applying ice, popping blisters, or using butter/oil are not recommended as they can worsen the injury.
Which of the following factors can increase the risk of burn injuries in older adults?
Explanation: Slower reaction time can increase the risk of burn injuries in older adults. Age-related changes, such as decreased mobility and delayed response to hazards, can make older adults more susceptible to accidents that lead to burns.
A patient with a superficial burn injury is prescribed a topical medication that contains silver sulfadiazine. What is the primary purpose of using silver sulfadiazine on burn wounds?
Explanation: The primary purpose of using silver sulfadiazine on burn wounds is to prevent infection. Silver sulfadiazine has antimicrobial properties that help reduce the risk of bacterial growth in burn injuries, which is crucial for wound healing.
Which of the following topical medications is commonly used to manage pain in burn wounds and has both analgesic (pain-relieving) and anti-inflammatory properties?
Explanation: Mafenide acetate is commonly used to manage pain in burn wounds. It has analgesic properties and can also reduce inflammation, providing relief to patients with burn injuries.
A patient with a burn wound is being treated with hydrocolloid dressings. What is the primary benefit of using hydrocolloid dressings in burn wound management?
Explanation: The primary benefit of using hydrocolloid dressings in burn wound management is promoting wound healing. These dressings create a moist environment that supports the healing process and helps in the removal of dead tissue.
Which topical medication is often used for its cauterizing effect on burn wounds and can help in hemostasis (stopping bleeding) when applied to small superficial burns?
Explanation: Silver nitrate is often used for its cauterizing effect on small superficial burn wounds. It can help in hemostasis by stopping bleeding and preventing further tissue damage.
What is the primary goal of burn wound medications in the early stages of burn injury management?
Explanation: The primary goal of burn wound medications in the early stages of burn injury management is preventing infection. Infections can be a serious complication of burn wounds, so minimizing the risk of infection is crucial for successful treatment.
A patient with severe burn injuries presents with hypovolemic shock. What is the primary fluid replacement solution of choice in burn wound resuscitation to restore intravascular volume and tissue perfusion?
Explanation: In burn wound resuscitation for hypovolemic shock, Lactated Ringer’s Solution is the primary fluid replacement solution of choice. It helps restore intravascular volume and tissue perfusion and provides electrolytes that are beneficial in burn injury management.
Which of the following parameters is typically used to guide fluid resuscitation in burn patients during the initial 24 hours post-injury?
Explanation: Urine output is typically used to guide fluid resuscitation in burn patients during the initial 24 hours post-injury. Adequate urine output is an important indicator of sufficient fluid replacement to maintain renal perfusion and prevent acute kidney injury.
During the early stages of burn wound resuscitation, what is the target urine output per hour in adults with severe burns?
Explanation: During the early stages of burn wound resuscitation, the target urine output per hour in adults with severe burns is typically 60-100 mL/hour. This helps ensure adequate renal perfusion and fluid balance.
In burn wound resuscitation, why is it important to monitor for signs of fluid overload, such as pulmonary edema?
Explanation: Monitoring for signs of fluid overload, such as pulmonary edema, is important in burn wound resuscitation to adjust fluid resuscitation accordingly. Excessive fluid administration can lead to complications, and careful monitoring helps prevent such issues.
Which of the following factors can influence the fluid resuscitation requirements in burn patients?
Explanation: Ambient temperature is one of the factors that can influence the fluid resuscitation requirements in burn patients. Environmental factors, such as hot weather, can increase fluid loss and affect the patient’s overall fluid needs.