Welcome future RN and LPN nurses! Study with our Medical-Surgical nursing exam question Qbanks. The questions include answers and detailed explanations. The exam subjects include medical surgical nursing topics including priorities of care, health promotion and maintenance, safe and effective care, and basic care and comfort, treatments and nursing management of shock, gastrointestinal disorders, GERD, peptic ulcer disease, inflammatory bowel disease, infectious disorders, diverticulitis, and appendicitis.
Medical-Surgical Test 1, Medical-Surgical Test 2, Medical-Surgical Test 3, Medical-Surgical Test 4, Medical-Surgical Test 5, Medical-Surgical Test 6, Medical-Surgical Test 7, Medical-Surgical Test 9, Medical-Surgical Test 10
A 60-year-old patient presents with left lower abdominal pain, bloating, and changes in bowel habits over the past week. The patient’s vital signs are stable, and there is localized tenderness in the left lower abdomen. The patient has no fever. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Given the patient’s age, left lower abdominal pain, localized tenderness, and absence of fever, the most likely diagnosis is diverticulitis. Diverticulitis is characterized by the inflammation or infection of small pouches (diverticula) that can develop in the colon. Patients often experience abdominal pain, changes in bowel habits, and may have tenderness in the affected area. It is important to consider this diagnosis and further evaluate the patient for appropriate management.
Correct Answer:
Medical Surgical POP QUIZ Question:
@qbankproacademy 4000+ Free NCLEX QUESTIONS. Go to QBankProAcademy.com FREE Qbank questions for NCLEX RN, PN, HESI Exit, Med Surg, AANP, ANCC, and HesiA2. Practice questions, quizzes, and listen to the Free Podcast. In this video, we review a question on SKIN INTEGRITY, PRESSURE ULCERS, and WOUND CARE in Nursing. At QbankproAcademy.com our mission is to provide free QBanks, videos, and the most up to date test prep information for nurses. If you find our website helpful, please tell other aspiring nurses, nursing students, and professors. Please link to our site from your blogs, videos, and college websites, or share us on your favorite social media sites. Thank you for your support! nclex Nurses Nursing aanp qbank ancc hesi medsurg qbank
Medical-Surgical Nursing Questions: Peptic Ulcer Treatments
A 45-year-old patient presents with severe right upper abdominal pain that radiates to the back, accompanied by nausea and vomiting. The patient also mentions that the pain worsens after consuming a fatty meal. On examination, Murphy’s sign is positive. What is the most likely diagnosis?
The patient’s symptoms, including right upper abdominal pain that worsens after fatty meals, along with a positive Murphy’s sign (pain on palpation of the gallbladder), are indicative of cholecystitis. Cholecystitis is an inflammation of the gallbladder, often associated with gallstones. It typically presents with severe abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting, and can be triggered by fatty meals. Prompt evaluation and treatment are important.
Correct Answer:
A 50-year-old patient with a history of gallstones presents with colicky right upper abdominal pain. The pain is intermittent and often occurs after meals. What is the most likely diagnosis?
The patient’s history of gallstones, along with colicky right upper abdominal pain that occurs after meals, is suggestive of cholecystitis. Cholecystitis often occurs due to gallstones blocking the bile duct, causing inflammation and pain. Patients may experience intermittent, crampy pain in the right upper abdomen.
Correct Answer:
Medical-Surgical Nursing Questions Focus on Peptic Ulcers: Causes and Diagnosis
A 55-year-old patient presents with severe right upper abdominal pain, jaundice, and dark urine. On examination, the patient has pale stools. What is the most likely diagnosis?
The combination of severe right upper abdominal pain, jaundice, dark urine, and pale stools suggests a possible blockage of the common bile duct, which can occur in cases of choledocholithiasis. Choledocholithiasis refers to the presence of gallstones in the common bile duct and can lead to obstructive jaundice, causing the described symptoms.
Correct Answer:
Medical-Surgical Nursing Questions Focus on Peptic Ulcers: Medications
A 40-year-old patient presents with right upper abdominal pain that radiates to the right shoulder. The pain is aggravated by deep inspiration. The patient has a history of alcohol abuse. What is the most likely diagnosis?
The patient’s right upper abdominal pain that radiates to the right shoulder and is aggravated by deep inspiration, along with a history of alcohol abuse, raises suspicion of acute cholecystitis. Acute cholecystitis can present with these symptoms, and it often occurs in individuals with gallstones.
Correct Answer:
Medical-Surgical Nursing Questions: Understanding Peptic Ulcer Causes and Symptoms
A 35-year-old pregnant patient presents with right upper abdominal pain and nausea. The pain is not relieved by changes in position. What is the most likely diagnosis?
The right upper abdominal pain and nausea in a pregnant patient should raise concern for cholecystitis. Pregnancy is a risk factor for gallstone formation, and the hormone changes during pregnancy can increase the likelihood of gallbladder issues. Cholecystitis can be particularly challenging to diagnose in pregnant patients, but it should be considered as a potential cause of symptoms.
Correct Answer:
Understanding Peptic Ulcers: Causes and Symptoms
A 35-year-old patient presents with burning epigastric pain that improves with food intake and worsens on an empty stomach. The patient also has a history of NSAID use. What is the most likely diagnosis?
The patient’s burning epigastric pain that improves with food intake and worsens on an empty stomach, along with a history of NSAID use, is suggestive of gastritis. Gastritis is an inflammation of the stomach lining and can be caused by factors such as NSAID use. Symptoms often include epigastric pain and discomfort.
Correct Answer:
Understanding Peptic Ulcers: Medical-Surgical Nursing Questions
A 45-year-old patient presents with abdominal discomfort and bloating after consuming spicy and fatty foods. The patient reports a burning sensation in the upper abdomen. What is the most likely diagnosis?
The patient’s symptoms of abdominal discomfort, bloating, and a burning sensation in the upper abdomen, particularly after consuming spicy and fatty foods, are consistent with gastritis. Gastritis can be triggered by dietary factors and often presents with discomfort in the upper abdominal region.
Correct Answer:
A 55-year-old patient presents with a history of alcohol abuse and recurrent vomiting of blood. The patient’s abdomen is tender on examination. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation:
The patient’s history of alcohol abuse, recurrent vomiting of blood, and abdominal tenderness suggest a potential gastrointestinal bleeding, which can be associated with gastritis. Chronic alcohol use can lead to gastritis and increase the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding, leading to symptoms like vomiting blood (hematemesis).
Correct Answer:
Explanation:
The patient’s symptoms of rapid heart rate, sweating, and abdominal cramps after meals, particularly when consuming sugary foods, are indicative of dumping syndrome. Dumping syndrome can occur after gastrectomy when food rapidly moves from the stomach into the small intestine, leading to these symptoms. It is a common complication after gastrectomy.
Correct Answer:
Medical-Surgical Nursing Questions: Peptic Ulcer Questions, Answers and Rationales
A 40-year-old patient who had a gastrectomy to manage peptic ulcer disease experiences recurrent diarrhea, lightheadedness, and sweating after meals. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation:
The patient’s recurrent diarrhea, lightheadedness, and sweating after meals are characteristic of dumping syndrome, which can occur following a gastrectomy. Dumping syndrome is marked by rapid transit of food into the small intestine, leading to these symptoms. It is a known complication of gastrectomy.
Correct Answer:
A 55-year-old patient with a history of gastrectomy presents with abdominal discomfort and bloating after meals. The patient does not experience rapid heart rate or sweating but reports feeling full quickly. What is the most likely diagnosis?
The patient’s symptoms of abdominal discomfort and bloating after meals, along with feeling full quickly, are suggestive of late dumping syndrome. Unlike early dumping syndrome, late dumping syndrome occurs 1-3 hours after eating and is characterized by similar symptoms but without the rapid heart rate or sweating. It can occur after a gastrectomy.
Correct Answer:
Understanding Peptic Ulcers: Medical-Surgical Nursing Priority Questions
A 60-year-old patient who had a gastrectomy presents with recurrent episodes of sweating, weakness, and palpitations after meals. These symptoms resolve after lying down. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation:
The patient’s recurrent episodes of sweating, weakness, palpitations after meals, and relief upon lying down are indicative of early dumping syndrome. Early dumping syndrome typically occurs within 30 minutes after eating and can cause these symptoms. It is a common complication after gastrectomy.
Correct Answer:
A 70-year-old patient who had a gastrectomy presents with frequent diarrhea, abdominal cramps, and weakness after meals. The patient does not experience sweating or palpitations. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation:
The patient’s frequent diarrhea, abdominal cramps, and weakness after meals, without sweating or palpitations, are suggestive of late dumping syndrome. Late dumping syndrome occurs 1-3 hours after eating and can cause gastrointestinal symptoms like diarrhea and cramps. It can occur after a gastrectomy.
Correct Answer:
A 35-year-old patient presents with sudden severe abdominal pain that is constant and localized to the right lower quadrant. The patient also has a low-grade fever and rebound tenderness. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation:
The patient’s sudden severe abdominal pain localized to the right lower quadrant, low-grade fever, and rebound tenderness are suggestive of appendicitis. Appendicitis is an acute condition that often requires surgical intervention due to the risk of rupture and peritonitis.
Correct Answer:
A 45-year-old patient with a history of peptic ulcer disease presents with sudden, severe, generalized abdominal pain. The patient appears pale and diaphoretic. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation:
The patient’s sudden, severe, generalized abdominal pain, pallor, and diaphoresis are indicative of a serious condition, such as a perforated peptic ulcer. This condition can lead to peritonitis, a life-threatening inflammation of the abdominal lining.
Correct Answer:
A 55-year-old patient presents with abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. On examination, the patient has rigidity and guarding of the abdominal muscles. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation:
The patient’s abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, rigidity, and guarding of the abdominal muscles are indicative of peritonitis, which is an inflammation of the peritoneum (abdominal lining). Peritonitis often presents with severe abdominal pain and requires prompt medical attention.
Correct Answer:
A 60-year-old patient with a history of diverticulitis presents with sudden-onset abdominal pain and tenderness, as well as fever and elevated white blood cell count. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation:
The patient’s sudden-onset abdominal pain, tenderness, fever, and elevated white blood cell count are indicative of diverticulitis with abscess formation. This condition can lead to localized peritonitis and often requires medical intervention.
Correct Answer:
A 70-year-old patient presents with abdominal pain, distension, and absent bowel sounds. The patient has a history of abdominal surgery. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation:
The patient’s abdominal pain, distension, absent bowel sounds, and history of abdominal surgery are suggestive of paralytic ileus, a condition where the bowel is temporarily unable to contract and move contents. It can lead to abdominal discomfort and requires supportive care.
Correct Answer:
A 65-year-old patient presents with abdominal pain, distention, and vomiting. On examination, there are high-pitched bowel sounds, and the patient’s abdomen is tympanic on percussion. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation:
The patient’s abdominal pain, distention, vomiting, high-pitched bowel sounds, and tympanic abdomen on percussion are indicative of bowel obstruction. Bowel obstruction can lead to abdominal distention and the accumulation of gas and fluid in the obstructed bowel loops, resulting in these symptoms.
Correct Answer:
A 50-year-old patient with a history of abdominal surgeries presents with crampy abdominal pain, constipation, and visible peristalsis. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation:
The patient’s crampy abdominal pain, constipation, and visible peristalsis are suggestive of bowel obstruction. In a patient with a history of abdominal surgeries, adhesions can often lead to bowel obstruction by restricting the normal movement of the intestines.
Correct Answer:
A 60-year-old patient presents with severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and an inability to pass gas or stool. Abdominal X-ray reveals dilated loops of bowel. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation:
The patient’s severe abdominal pain, vomiting, inability to pass gas or stool, and the presence of dilated loops of bowel on abdominal X-ray strongly suggest bowel obstruction. Bowel obstruction can lead to distention of the affected bowel segments and impaired bowel function.
Correct Answer:
A 55-year-old patient presents with abdominal pain, vomiting, and a history of hernia repair surgery. On examination, the patient has a distended abdomen with a visible hernia. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation:
The patient’s abdominal pain, vomiting, distended abdomen, and visible hernia after hernia repair surgery are indicative of a hernia recurrence with bowel obstruction. A hernia recurrence can lead to the entrapment of bowel, causing bowel obstruction.
Correct Answer:
A 70-year-old patient presents with abdominal pain, bloating, and infrequent bowel movements. The patient has a history of colorectal cancer. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation:
The patient’s abdominal pain, bloating, infrequent bowel movements, and history of colorectal cancer are concerning for colorectal cancer recurrence causing bowel obstruction. Patients with a history of colorectal cancer are at risk for tumor recurrence and bowel obstruction.
Correct Answer: