Welcome future nurses! Let’s dive in. Study with our Medical-Surgical Nursing Exam Question Qbanks. The questions include answers and detailed explanations. The exam subjects include medical surgical nursing topics including priorities of care, health promotion and maintenance, safe and effective care, and basic care and comfort, treatments and nursing management of shock, gastrointestinal disorders, GERD, peptic ulcer disease, inflammatory bowel disease, infectious disorders, diverticulitis, and appendicitis.
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A 65-year-old patient presents to the emergency department with severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and abdominal distention. On examination, you notice high-pitched bowel sounds and visible peristalsis. What is the most appropriate initial treatment for this patient?

A) Intravenous (IV) fluids and electrolyte replacement
B) Bowel rest and nasogastric tube (NGT) decompression
C) Surgical resection of the obstruction
D) Antibiotics

Explanation: The initial treatment for a patient with suspected bowel obstruction involves bowel rest, NGT decompression to relieve distention, and IV fluids and electrolyte replacement to address dehydration and electrolyte imbalances.

Correct Answer:

Select an answer B) Bowel rest and nasogastric tube (NGT) decompression

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A 45-year-old patient with a history of diverticulosis is diagnosed with a partial large bowel obstruction. What is the primary goal of treatment in this patient?

A) Surgical resection of the obstructed segment
B) Administering antibiotics
C) Relieving pain with analgesics
D) Conservative management and observation

Explanation: In a patient with a partial large bowel obstruction, the primary goal of treatment is conservative management, including bowel rest, IV fluids, and observation, to allow the obstruction to resolve without surgery.

Correct Answer:

Select an answer D) Conservative management and observation

Medical-Surgical Nursing Questions: Gastrointestinal Disorders Treatments

A 55-year-old patient with a history of colorectal cancer presents with a complete large bowel obstruction. What is the definitive treatment for this patient?

A) Bowel rest and NGT decompression
B) Administering laxatives
C) Surgical resection of the obstructed segment
D) Radiation therapy

Explanation: In a patient with a complete large bowel obstruction, the definitive treatment is surgical resection of the obstructed segment, which may involve colostomy or anastomosis.

Correct Answer:

Select an answer C) Surgical resection of the obstructed segment

A 70-year-old patient presents with a strangulated bowel obstruction. What is the immediate priority in the management of this patient?

A) Administering pain medication
B) Initiating IV fluids and antibiotics
C) Scheduling elective surgery
D) Immediate surgical intervention

Explanation: In a patient with a strangulated bowel obstruction, the immediate priority is immediate surgical intervention to relieve the strangulation and restore blood flow.

Correct Answer:

Select an answer D) Immediate surgical intervention

Medical-Surgical Nursing Questions Focus on Gastrointestinal Disorders: Causes and Diagnosis

After surgery for bowel obstruction, a 60-year-old patient is at risk for developing postoperative complications. Which of the following complications should be closely monitored in the postoperative period?

A) Allergic reaction
B) Hyperglycemia
C) Respiratory distress
D) Visual disturbances

Explanation: After surgery for bowel obstruction, patients should be closely monitored for postoperative complications, including respiratory distress, which may result from anesthesia or surgical stress.

Correct Answer:

Select an answer C) Respiratory distress

Medical-Surgical Nursing Questions Focus on Gastrointestinal Disorders: Medications

A 30-year-old patient presents with watery diarrhea, cramps, and fever. Stool examination reveals white blood cells and red blood cells. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s symptoms?

A) Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)
B) Clostridium difficile infection (CDI)
C) Diverticulitis
D) Lactose intolerance

Explanation: This patient’s symptoms, including watery diarrhea, fever, and the presence of white blood cells in the stool, are suggestive of a Clostridium difficile infection (CDI).

Correct Answer:

Select an answer B) Clostridium difficile infection (CDI)

An elderly patient complains of chronic constipation. What dietary recommendation can help alleviate constipation in this patient?

A) Increase fiber intake
B) Decrease fluid intake
C) Avoid fruits and vegetables
D) Limit physical activity

Explanation: Increasing dietary fiber intake is a recommended intervention for alleviating constipation in elderly patients as it helps promote regular bowel movements.

Correct Answer:

Select an answer A) Increase fiber intake

A 25-year-old patient presents with bloody diarrhea and abdominal pain. The patient has a history of inflammatory bowel disease (IBD). What type of IBD is more commonly associated with bloody diarrhea?

A) Crohn’s disease
B) Ulcerative colitis
C) Diverticulitis
D) Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)

Explanation: Bloody diarrhea is more commonly associated with ulcerative colitis, a type of inflammatory bowel disease (IBD).

Correct Answer:

Select an answer B) Ulcerative colitis

Medical-Surgical Nursing Questions: Understanding Gastrointestinal Disorders Causes and Symptoms

A 40-year-old patient complains of chronic diarrhea, which worsens after consuming dairy products. What condition is likely causing this patient’s symptoms?

A) Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)
B) Gastroenteritis
C) Crohn’s disease
D) Lactose intolerance

Explanation: Chronic diarrhea worsened by dairy product consumption is characteristic of lactose intolerance, which occurs due to an inability to digest lactose.

Correct Answer:

Select an answer D) Lactose intolerance

A 50-year-old patient with a history of chronic pain medication use presents with severe constipation and abdominal discomfort. What is the appropriate initial intervention for this patient?

A) Administer a laxative
B) Perform a colonoscopy
C) Initiate intravenous (IV) fluids
D) Discontinue pain medications that may slow bowel function

Explanation: The appropriate initial intervention for a patient with medication-induced constipation is to discontinue medication that may slow bowel function, if possible, and consider alternative pain management options.

Correct Answer:

Select an answer D) Discontinue opioid use

Understanding Gastrointestinal Disorders: Causes and Symptoms

 

A 60-year-old with a history of chronic constipation, presents with abdominal pain and infrequent bowel movements. Which intervention is appropriate for managing this patient’s constipation?

A) Increase dietary fiber intake
B) Administer a laxative
C) Encourage reduced fluid intake
D) Suggest long-term bed rest

Explanation: Patient A’s chronic constipation may benefit from increasing dietary fiber intake, which can promote regular bowel movements and relieve symptoms.

Correct Answer:

Select an answer A) Increase dietary fiber intake

Understanding Gastrointestinal Disorders: Medical-Surgical Nursing Questions

A 35-year-old, complains of acute diarrhea with fever and bloody stools. Stool cultures confirm Salmonella infection. What is the primary treatment for this patient’s condition?

A) Antibiotics
B) Anti-diarrheal medications
C) Intravenous (IV) fluids
D) Bed rest

Explanation: In cases of Salmonella infection with severe symptoms, antibiotics may be necessary to treat the infection and prevent complications.

Correct Answer:

Select an answer A) Antibiotics

Understanding Gastrointestinal Disorders: Medical-Surgical Nursing High Yield Questions

A 45-year-old, presents with chronic diarrhea and weight loss. The patient has a history of Crohn’s disease. What is the primary goal of treatment in this case?

A) Relieve symptoms and promote remission
B) Induce vomiting
C) Administer laxatives
D) Increase caffeine intake

Explanation: In patients with Crohn’s disease and chronic diarrhea, the primary goal of treatment is to relieve symptoms, induce remission, and manage the underlying inflammatory condition.

Correct Answer:

Select an answer A) Relieve symptoms and promote remission

Patient D, a 55-year-old, experiences occasional constipation. What is the initial non-pharmacological intervention recommended for this patient to manage constipation?

A) Administer a laxative
B) Encourage reduced fluid intake
C) Increase physical activity
D) Initiate a low-fiber diet

Explanation: For patients with occasional constipation, increasing physical activity is an initial non-pharmacological intervention that can help promote regular bowel movements.

Correct Answer:

Select an answer C) Increase physical activity

Medical-Surgical Nursing Questions: Gastrointestinal Disorders Questions, Answers and Rationales

Patient E, a 70-year-old, has been diagnosed with Clostridium difficile (C. diff) infection, resulting in severe diarrhea. What is the appropriate initial treatment for this patient?

A) Administer a laxative
B) Perform a colonoscopy
C) Initiate intravenous (IV) fluids
D) Start antibiotics specific to C. diff

Explanation: For C. diff infection, the appropriate initial treatment is antibiotics that target the Clostridium difficile bacteria.

Correct Answer:

Select an answer D) Start antibiotics specific to C. diff

A 70-year-old with a history of chronic constipation, presents with abdominal discomfort and infrequent bowel movements. Which non-pharmacological intervention is appropriate for managing this patient’s constipation?

A) Administer a laxative
B) Encourage reduced fluid intake
C) Increase dietary fiber intake
D) Suggest bed rest

Explanation: Patient A’s chronic constipation may benefit from increasing dietary fiber intake, which can promote regular bowel movements and relieve symptoms.

Correct Answer:

Select an answer C) Increase dietary fiber intake

A 45-year-old, experiences occasional constipation. What is the initial non-pharmacological intervention recommended for this patient to manage constipation?

A) Administer a laxative
B) Encourage reduced fluid intake
C) Increase physical activity
D) Initiate a low-fiber diet

Explanation: For patients with occasional constipation, increasing physical activity is an initial non-pharmacological intervention that can help promote regular bowel movements.

Correct Answer:

Select an answer C) Increase physical activity

A 55-year-old, presents with constipation related to opioid use for pain management. What medication is commonly used to manage opioid-induced constipation?

A) Loperamide
B) Psyllium husk
C) Senna
D) Polyethylene glycol (PEG)

Explanation: Medications like Senna or Polyethylene glycol (PEG) are commonly used to manage opioid-induced constipation by promoting bowel movements.

Correct Answer:

Select an answer C) Senna

Understanding Gastrointestinal Disorders: Medical-Surgical Nursing Priority Questions

A 60-year-old, experiences constipation following abdominal surgery. Which pharmacological intervention is commonly used in postoperative patients to prevent constipation?

A) Anti-diarrheal medications
B) Opioid analgesics
C) Stool softeners
D) Diuretics

Explanation: Stool softeners are commonly used in postoperative patients to prevent constipation by promoting easier passage of stool.

Correct Answer:

Select an answer C) Stool softeners

Understanding Gastrointestinal Disorders: Medical-Surgical Nursing Delegation Questions

A 70-year-old patient presents with abdominal discomfort and infrequent bowel movements. Which non-pharmacological intervention is appropriate for managing this patient’s constipation?

A) Administer a laxative
B) Encourage reduced fluid intake
C) Increase dietary fiber intake
D) Suggest bed rest

Explanation: Patient’s chronic constipation may benefit from increasing dietary fiber intake, which can promote regular bowel movements and relieve symptoms.

Correct Answer:

Select an answer C) Increase dietary fiber intake

A 45-year-old patient experiences occasional constipation. What is the initial non-pharmacological intervention recommended for managing constipation?

A) Administer a laxative
B) Encourage reduced fluid intake
C) Increase physical activity
D) Initiate a low-fiber diet

Explanation: For patients with occasional constipation, increasing physical activity is an initial non-pharmacological intervention that can help promote regular bowel movements.

Correct Answer:

Select an answer C) Increase physical activity

A 55-year-old patient presents with constipation related to opioid use for pain management. What medication is commonly used to manage opioid-induced constipation?

A) Loperamide
B) Psyllium husk
C) Senna
D) Polyethylene glycol (PEG)

Explanation: Medications like Senna or Polyethylene glycol (PEG) are commonly used to manage opioid-induced constipation by promoting bowel movements.

Correct Answer:

Select an answer C) Senna

A 60-year-old patient experiences constipation following abdominal surgery. Which pharmacological intervention is commonly used in postoperative patients to prevent constipation?

A) Anti-diarrheal medications
B) Opioid analgesics
C) Stool softeners
D) Diuretics

Explanation: Stool softeners are commonly used in postoperative patients to prevent constipation by promoting easier passage of stool.

Correct Answer:

Select an answer C) Stool softeners

A 35-year-old patient with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is seeking relief from recurrent constipation. Which non-pharmacological intervention is often recommended for managing IBS-related constipation?

A) Increase caffeine intake
B) Avoid dairy products
C) Reduce fiber intake
D) Practice stress management techniques

Explanation: Patients with IBS-related constipation often benefit from stress management techniques as stress can exacerbate symptoms.

Correct Answer:

Select an answer D) Practice stress management techniques

A 78-year-old patient is admitted with dysphagia following a stroke. What is the primary nursing intervention for managing dysphagia in this patient?

A) Encourage the patient to eat quickly to minimize fatigue
B) Administer a muscle relaxant before meals
C) Perform a swallowing assessment and recommend appropriate diet modifications
D) Advise the patient to avoid all oral intake

Explanation: In patients with dysphagia, a swallowing assessment is crucial to determine the safest diet consistency and feeding strategies. Modifications can help prevent aspiration.

Correct Answer:

Select an answer C) Perform a swallowing assessment and recommend appropriate diet modifications

A 55-year-old patient with dysphagia experiences coughing and choking during meals. What action should the nurse take during mealtime to assist this patient?

A) Administer a cough suppressant before meals
B) Encourage the patient to eat rapidly to reduce choking episodes
C) Offer small, frequent meals and thickened liquids
D) Suggest the patient eat only solid foods to avoid liquids

Explanation: Offering small, frequent meals and thickened liquids can reduce the risk of choking and aspiration in patients with dysphagia.

Correct Answer:

Select an answer C) Offer small, frequent meals and thickened liquids

A 68-year-old patient with dysphagia is at risk for aspiration pneumonia. Which nursing intervention is essential to prevent aspiration in this patient?

A) Elevate the head of the bed to a semi-Fowler’s position during meals and for at least 30 minutes after
B) Administer a sedative medication before meals to keep the patient calm
C) Encourage the patient to lie flat during meals to aid digestion
D) Restrict the patient’s fluid intake to minimize the risk of choking

Explanation: Elevating the head of the bed to a semi-Fowler’s position during meals and for at least 30 minutes after reduces the risk of aspiration in dysphagia patients.

Correct Answer:

Select an answer A) Elevate the head of the bed to a semi-Fowler’s position during meals and for at least 30 minutes after

A 62-year-old patient with dysphagia is on a pureed diet. What should the nurse prioritize when serving pureed foods to this patient?

A) Serve foods at room temperature to enhance flavor
B) Present a variety of textures and consistencies
C) Ensure that foods are well-cooked and lump-free
D) Offer large portions to meet nutritional needs

Explanation: Pureed foods for dysphagia patients should be well-cooked and free of lumps to prevent choking and ensure safe swallowing.

Correct Answer:

Select an answer C) Ensure that foods are well-cooked and lump-free

A 70-year-old patient with dysphagia is being discharged. Which instruction should the nurse provide to the patient’s caregiver regarding mealtime management?

A) Use straws for all liquid intake
B) Serve hot foods to stimulate appetite
C) Avoid thickening liquids to make them more palatable
D) Ensure the patient sits upright during meals and takes small, manageable bites

Explanation: Caregivers should be instructed to ensure the patient sits upright during meals and takes small, manageable bites to minimize the risk of aspiration.

Correct Answer:

Select an answer D) Ensure the patient sits upright during meals and takes small, manageable bites

A 45-year-old patient is admitted with acute pancreatitis. Which dietary intervention is most appropriate for managing acute pancreatitis in this patient?

A) A high-fat diet to reduce pancreatic stimulation
B) A clear liquid diet to rest the pancreas
C) A regular diet with no dietary restrictions
D) A low-fat diet with small, frequent meals

Explanation: In acute pancreatitis, a low-fat diet with small, frequent meals is recommended to reduce pancreatic stimulation and discomfort.

Correct Answer:

Select an answer D) A low-fat diet with small, frequent meals

A 50-year-old patient with chronic pancreatitis experiences severe abdominal pain. What medication should the nurse expect to administer for pain relief in this patient?

A) Ibuprofen
B) Acetaminophen
C) Morphine sulfate
D) Antibiotics

Explanation: Morphine sulfate is often used to manage severe abdominal pain in patients with chronic pancreatitis.

Correct Answer:

Select an answer C) Morphine sulfate

An 60-year-old patient with pancreatitis is at risk for malnutrition. What pancreatic enzyme replacement therapy may be prescribed to help with digestion?

A) Antacids
B) Laxatives
C) Pancrelipase
D) Diuretics

Explanation: Pancrelipase is a pancreatic enzyme replacement therapy used to help patients with pancreatitis digest and absorb nutrients properly.

Correct Answer:

Select an answer C) Pancrelipase

A 55-year-old patient with acute pancreatitis presents with abdominal distention and nausea. What nursing intervention can help relieve these symptoms?

A) Administer a high-fat diet
B) Elevate the head of the bed
C) Provide a large meal once a day
D) Administer antiemetic medications as prescribed

Explanation: Administering antiemetic medications as prescribed can help relieve nausea and vomiting, common symptoms in acute pancreatitis.

Correct Answer:

Select an answer D) Administer antiemetic medications as prescribed

A 70-year-old patient with a history of pancreatitis asks about lifestyle modifications to prevent recurrence. What should the nurse recommend to the patient?

A) Increase alcohol consumption
B) Avoid smoking and limit alcohol intake
C) Eat a high-fat diet
D) Engage in strenuous physical activity

Explanation: To prevent recurrence of pancreatitis, patients should be advised to avoid smoking and limit alcohol intake.

Correct Answer:

Select an answer B) Avoid smoking and limit alcohol intake

Medical-Surgical Nursing Questions

Question 1:

A 55-year-old patient presents with symptoms of heartburn, regurgitation, and a sour taste in the mouth. After a diagnosis of GERD, what is the first-line treatment option to relieve symptoms and heal esophageal irritation?

A. High-dose aspirin therapy.
B. Lifestyle modifications and antacids.
C. Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs).
D. Intravenous (IV) antibiotics.

Explanation: The first-line treatment for GERD typically involves lifestyle modifications and medications. Lifestyle changes include dietary adjustments, such as avoiding spicy and acidic foods, as well as elevating the head of the bed during sleep. Antacids can provide temporary relief by neutralizing stomach acid. However, for long-term management and healing of esophageal irritation, proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) are the preferred choice. PPIs reduce stomach acid production, allowing the esophagus to heal and relieving symptoms like heartburn and regurgitation.

Show the answer: The correct answer is B

While educating a patient with GERD about dietary modifications, which of the following foods should the nurse recommend avoiding to help prevent symptom exacerbation?

A. Oatmeal.
B. Fresh fruits and vegetables.
C. Lean proteins, such as chicken breast.
D. Spicy foods and citrus fruits.

Explanation:Patients with GERD should avoid foods that can trigger acid reflux and worsen symptoms. Among these, spicy foods and citrus fruits are particularly problematic. Spices can irritate the esophagus and increase stomach acid production, leading to heartburn and regurgitation. Citrus fruits, such as oranges and grapefruits, are acidic and can relax the lower esophageal sphincter, allowing stomach acid to flow back into the esophagus. Therefore, it is essential to advise patients to avoid or limit the consumption of spicy foods and citrus fruits to help prevent symptom exacerbation and promote better management of GERD.

Show the answer: The correct answer is D

In the management of GERD, what is the mechanism of action of H2 receptor antagonists (H2 blockers) like ranitidine (Zantac)?

A. Coating the esophageal lining.
B. Neutralizing stomach acid.
C. Reducing gastric acid secretion.
D. Increasing esophageal motility.

Explanation: H2 receptor antagonists, like ranitidine (Zantac), work by reducing gastric acid secretion. These medications block histamine-2 receptors on the parietal cells of the stomach lining, which are responsible for acid production. By inhibiting the action of histamine on these receptors, H2 blockers decrease the production of stomach acid. This reduction in acid secretion helps alleviate symptoms of GERD, such as heartburn and acid regurgitation, and promotes healing of the esophagus. However, they are not as potent as proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) in acid suppression but can be suitable for mild to moderate GERD cases.

Show the answer: The correct answer is C

Which lifestyle modification should the nurse recommend to a patient with GERD who experiences symptoms primarily at night?

A. Limiting caffeine intake.
B. Eating large meals before bedtime.
C. Sleeping with extra pillows.
D. Engaging in vigorous exercise before sleep.

Explanation: Patients with GERD who experience nighttime symptoms, often referred to as nocturnal reflux, should consider elevating the head of the bed rather than using extra pillows. Using extra pillows may lead to improper body alignment and may not effectively prevent stomach acid from flowing back into the esophagus. Elevating the head of the bed by about 6 to 8 inches allows gravity to help keep stomach acid down in the stomach, reducing the likelihood of nighttime symptoms like heartburn and regurgitation. This simple lifestyle modification can significantly improve the quality of sleep and overall management of GERD symptoms at night.

Show the answer: The correct answer is C

If a patient with GERD does not respond well to lifestyle modifications and medications, what surgical procedure may be considered as a last resort to correct the issue?

A. Cholecystectomy.
B. Appendectomy.
C. Nissen fundoplication.
D. Tonsillectomy.

Explanation: When conservative approaches and medications fail to provide adequate relief from GERD symptoms, and if the condition is severe, a surgical procedure known as Nissen fundoplication may be considered as a last resort. During this procedure, the upper part of the stomach is wrapped around the lower esophagus to prevent acid reflux. This reinforces the lower esophageal sphincter’s function and reduces the likelihood of stomach acid flowing back into the esophagus. While surgery is not the first-line approach, it can be highly effective for individuals who do not respond well to other treatments and suffer from significant complications related to GERD.

Show the answer: The correct answer is C

A 45-year-old patient presents with a bulge in the groin that is reducible with gentle pressure. The nurse suspects a hernia. Which type of hernia is most likely based on this description?

A. Inguinal hernia.
B. Umbilical hernia.
C. Hiatal hernia.
D. Incisional hernia.

Explanation: The description of a reducible bulge in the groin that can be pushed back gently is most indicative of an inguinal hernia. Inguinal hernias are common and occur when a portion of the intestine or abdominal tissue protrudes through the inguinal canal. This type of hernia typically presents as a bulge in the groin area and can often be reduced or pushed back in, especially when the patient is lying down. It is essential to differentiate between the types of hernias, as the management and surgical approaches may vary. Inguinal hernias may require surgical repair to prevent complications such as strangulation.

Show the answer: The correct answer is A

While providing postoperative care to a patient who has undergone hernia repair surgery, which nursing intervention is essential to monitor for potential complications?

A. Encouraging early ambulation.
B. Administering laxatives regularly.
C. Providing hot compresses to the incision site.
D. Administering high-dose aspirin.

Explanation: Following hernia repair surgery, monitoring for potential complications is crucial. One essential nursing intervention is to encourage early ambulation. Early mobilization helps prevent complications such as postoperative ileus (bowel paralysis) and deep vein thrombosis (DVT). It promotes circulation, aids in the return of normal bowel function, and reduces the risk of blood clots. Administering laxatives regularly, providing hot compresses to the incision site, or administering high-dose aspirin are not standard interventions for post-hernia repair care and may not address the specific needs of the patient after surgery.

Show the answer: The correct answer is A

A patient is diagnosed with a femoral hernia. Where should the nurse assess for this type of hernia?

A. In the groin area.
B. Around the umbilicus.
C. In the diaphragm.
D. Along a surgical incision.

Explanation: A femoral hernia is typically located in the groin area, specifically below the inguinal ligament and near the upper thigh. Unlike inguinal hernias, which are more common in men, femoral hernias are more common in women. They occur when abdominal tissue or a portion of the intestine protrudes through the femoral canal. It is essential for the nurse to assess the location carefully, as the type of hernia guides the treatment and surgical approach. Misidentification could lead to inappropriate management.

Show the answer: The correct answer is A

What is the primary goal of hernia repair surgery?

A. Cosmetic improvement.
B. Pain relief.
C. Preventing recurrence.
D. Weight loss.

Explanation: The primary goal of hernia repair surgery is to prevent recurrence and provide a long-term solution to the hernia. While cosmetic improvement may be a secondary benefit, the primary focus is on addressing the underlying issue, which is the protrusion of abdominal tissue or organs through a weakened area in the abdominal wall. Surgery aims to repair and reinforce the weakened area, relieving pain and discomfort and preventing the hernia from returning. Weight loss is not the primary goal of hernia repair, and this procedure is not typically performed for that purpose.

Show the answer: The correct answer is C

Which type of hernia is characterized by a protrusion through the diaphragm and can lead to gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) symptoms?

A. Inguinal hernia.
B. Umbilical hernia.
C. Hiatal hernia.
D. Incisional hernia.

Explanation: A hiatal hernia is characterized by a protrusion of a portion of the stomach through the diaphragm and into the chest cavity. This type of hernia can lead to gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) symptoms because the normal anatomical barrier between the stomach and the esophagus is disrupted. Stomach acid may flow back into the esophagus, causing heartburn, regurgitation, and other symptoms of GERD. Hiatal hernias are typically managed with lifestyle modifications, medications to reduce acid reflux, and, in severe cases, surgical repair. It is essential for the nurse to recognize the type of hernia and its potential complications to provide appropriate care.

Show the answer: The correct answer is C

What is a common complication associated with untreated constipation?

A. Gastric ulcers.
B. Hemorrhoids.
C. Hypertension.
D. Pneumonia.

Explanation: One common complication associated with untreated constipation is the development of hemorrhoids. Hemorrhoids are swollen and inflamed veins in the rectum and anus. When constipation leads to straining during bowel movements, it can increase pressure on the blood vessels in the rectal area, causing them to swell and become painful. Hemorrhoids can lead to discomfort, bleeding, and itching. Therefore, it is essential for healthcare providers to address constipation promptly to prevent the development of hemorrhoids and other potential complications.

Show the answer: The correct answer is B

Which of the following is a common symptom of dysphagia?

A. Persistent coughing during meals.
B. Decreased heart rate.
C. Increased appetite.
D. Improved taste sensation.

Explanation: A common symptom of dysphagia, which is difficulty swallowing, is persistent coughing during meals or when attempting to swallow. Dysphagia can make it challenging for individuals to safely and effectively move food and liquids from the mouth to the stomach. When there is difficulty in coordinating the swallowing process, food or liquids may enter the airway, leading to coughing and, in some cases, a risk of aspiration pneumonia. Healthcare providers and nurses must assess for dysphagia in patients, especially those at risk, and implement appropriate strategies such as modified diets and swallowing exercises to minimize the risk of complications.

Show the answer: The correct answer is A

What dietary modification is often recommended for individuals with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)?

A. High-fat diet.
B. Spicy foods.
C. Large, infrequent meals.
D. Small, frequent meals.

Explanation: Dietary modification is a key component of managing gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). One common dietary recommendation for individuals with GERD is to consume small, frequent meals rather than large, infrequent ones. Eating smaller meals helps reduce the volume of stomach contents, which can minimize the pressure on the lower esophageal sphincter (LES). The LES is a ring of muscle that separates the esophagus from the stomach, and its function is to prevent stomach acid from flowing back into the esophagus. Consuming smaller meals can help maintain the integrity of the LES and reduce the likelihood of acid reflux and GERD symptoms.

Show the answer: The correct answer is D

Which of the following is a common risk factor for developing a hernia?

A. Regular exercise.
B. Obesity.
C. Adequate fiber intake.
D. Vegetarian diet.

Explanation:Obesity is a common risk factor for developing a hernia. Excess body weight, particularly abdominal obesity, places increased pressure on the abdominal muscles and the abdominal wall. This can weaken the muscles and lead to the formation of hernias. The increased intra-abdominal pressure associated with obesity can contribute to the protrusion of abdominal organs or tissues through weakened areas in the abdominal wall, such as the inguinal or umbilical regions. Therefore, individuals who are overweight or obese are at a higher risk of developing hernias. Healthcare providers often educate patients about the importance of weight management and maintaining a healthy body mass index (BMI) to reduce the risk of hernias.

Show the answer: The correct answer is B

Which of the following is a common symptom of pancreatitis?

A. Increased appetite.
B. Severe, stabbing headache.
C. Abdominal pain.
D. Clear urine.

Explanation: One common symptom of pancreatitis is abdominal pain. Pancreatitis is the inflammation of the pancreas, an organ located behind the stomach. When the pancreas becomes inflamed, it can lead to severe abdominal pain, often described as a constant, dull ache or a gnawing sensation. The pain may radiate to the back and can be exacerbated by eating, especially fatty foods. In severe cases, pancreatitis can cause intense, stabbing abdominal pain. Other symptoms of pancreatitis may include nausea, vomiting, and fever. It is essential for healthcare providers to recognize these symptoms and promptly diagnose and manage pancreatitis, as severe cases can lead to complications.

Show the answer: The correct answer is C

Which of the following is a common symptom of appendicitis?

A. Chest pain.
B. Left lower abdominal pain.
C. Nausea and vomiting.
D. Knee pain.

Explanation:A common symptom of appendicitis is abdominal pain that typically starts around the navel and then moves to the right lower quadrant of the abdomen. This pain often becomes severe and is known as “McBurney’s point.” Nausea and vomiting are also common symptoms, as the inflamed appendix can irritate the gastrointestinal system. Chest pain, left lower abdominal pain, or knee pain are not typical symptoms of appendicitis. It’s crucial for healthcare providers to recognize these symptoms and promptly consider appendicitis as a potential diagnosis, as an untreated inflamed appendix can lead to a ruptured appendix, which is a surgical emergency.

Show the answer: The correct answer is C

What diagnostic test is commonly used to confirm appendicitis?

A. Electrocardiogram (ECG).
B. Chest X-ray.
C. Abdominal ultrasound.
D. Hearing test.

Explanation: Abdominal ultrasound is commonly used as a diagnostic test to confirm appendicitis. This imaging technique allows healthcare providers to visualize the inflamed appendix and assess for signs of inflammation, such as swelling and fluid buildup. While clinical evaluation and laboratory tests are also important in diagnosing appendicitis, imaging studies like abdominal ultrasound are particularly useful for confirming the diagnosis. Electrocardiograms (ECG) and chest X-rays are not typically used to diagnose appendicitis, and hearing tests are unrelated to this condition.

Show the answer: The correct answer is C What is the preferred treatment for acute appendicitis?

A. Antibiotics only.
B. Pain relief medications.
C. Surgical removal of the appendix (appendectomy).
D. Rest and relaxation.

Explanation:The preferred treatment for acute appendicitis is the surgical removal of the appendix, known as an appendectomy. Appendicitis is considered a medical emergency, and surgery is the primary treatment approach. Prompt surgical intervention is necessary to prevent the appendix from rupturing, which can lead to severe complications like peritonitis. While antibiotics may be used before surgery to reduce the risk of infection, they are not a standalone treatment for acute appendicitis. Pain relief medications are used to manage symptoms but do not treat the underlying condition. Rest and relaxation are not sufficient for treating appendicitis.

Show the answer: The correct answer is C

Where is the appendix located in the human body?

A. Left lower quadrant of the abdomen.
B. Right upper quadrant of the abdomen.
C. Right lower quadrant of the abdomen.
D. Left upper quadrant of the abdomen.

Explanation:The appendix is located in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen. It is a small, finger-shaped organ that extends from the cecum, which is the beginning of the large intestine. The precise location of the appendix can vary slightly among individuals, but it is most commonly found in the lower right portion of the abdomen. Knowledge of the appendix’s location is important for healthcare providers when assessing patients with suspected appendicitis, as tenderness and pain in the right lower quadrant can be indicative of appendicitis.

Show the answer: The correct answer is C

What is the function of the appendix in the human body?

A. Digestion of food.
B. Storage of bile.
C. Immune system support.
D. Production of insulin.

Explanation: The primary function of the appendix in the human body is still a subject of ongoing research and debate. While it may have had a more significant role in our evolutionary ancestors, it is considered a vestigial organ in modern humans. One of the leading theories is that the appendix may play a role in immune system support. It contains lymphatic tissue and is believed to contribute to the body’s immune response, particularly in early life. However, individuals can live a healthy life without their appendix, and its removal (appendectomy) is a common surgical procedure. The appendix is not involved in digestion, the storage of bile, or the production of insulin.

Show the answer: The correct answer is C

What is the primary cause of pernicious anemia?

A. Iron deficiency.
B. Vitamin B12 deficiency.
C. Folate deficiency.
D. Vitamin D deficiency.

Explanation for Question 1: The primary cause of pernicious anemia is a deficiency of vitamin B12 (cobalamin). Pernicious anemia is an autoimmune condition where the body’s immune system attacks and destroys the cells in the stomach that are responsible for producing intrinsic factor, a protein necessary for the absorption of vitamin B12 in the small intestine. Without intrinsic factor, vitamin B12 cannot be absorbed, leading to anemia and other neurological symptoms. Iron deficiency, folate deficiency, and vitamin D deficiency can cause different types of anemia but are not the primary causes of pernicious anemia.

Show the answer: The correct answer is B

Which of the following neurological symptoms is associated with pernicious anemia?

A. Hypertension.
B. Peripheral neuropathy.
C. Migraines.
D. Cataracts.

Explanation for Question 2: Peripheral neuropathy is a neurological symptom commonly associated with pernicious anemia. The deficiency of vitamin B12 in pernicious anemia can lead to damage to the peripheral nerves, resulting in symptoms such as numbness, tingling, and weakness in the extremities. Hypertension, migraines, and cataracts are not typically associated with pernicious anemia and may have different underlying causes.

Show the answer: The correct answer is B

What is the Schilling test used for in the diagnosis of pernicious anemia?

A. Assessing blood pressure levels.
B. Detecting bone fractures.
C. Evaluating vitamin B12 absorption.
D. Measuring kidney function.

Explanation for Question 3: The Schilling test is used in the diagnosis of pernicious anemia to evaluate vitamin B12 absorption in the digestive system. It helps determine whether the body is absorbing vitamin B12 properly. In the test, the patient is given a radioactive form of vitamin B12, and the amount of radioactivity in their urine is measured over a period. If a significant amount of the radioactive vitamin B12 is excreted in the urine, it suggests that the body is not effectively absorbing vitamin B12, which may indicate pernicious anemia. The Schilling test is a valuable diagnostic tool for identifying the underlying cause of vitamin B12 deficiency anemia. It is not used to assess blood pressure, detect bone fractures, or evaluate kidney function.

Show the answer: The correct answer is C

Which type of anemia results from the inability to absorb vitamin B12 due to pernicious anemia?

A. Iron-deficiency anemia.
B. Hemolytic anemia.
C. Macrocytic anemia.
D. Aplastic anemia.

Explanation for Question 4: The type of anemia that results from the inability to absorb vitamin B12 due to pernicious anemia is called macrocytic anemia. Macrocytic anemia is characterized by the presence of large, immature red blood cells in the bloodstream. These enlarged red blood cells are less efficient at carrying oxygen, which can lead to fatigue and other symptoms of anemia. Iron-deficiency anemia, hemolytic anemia, and aplastic anemia have different underlying causes and are not specifically associated with vitamin B12 malabsorption.

Show the answer: The correct answer is C

What is the most common treatment for pernicious anemia?

A. Iron supplements.
B. Folate supplements.
C. Vitamin D supplements.
D. Vitamin B12 injections.

Explanation for Question 5: The most common treatment for pernicious anemia is vitamin B12 injections. Since pernicious anemia is primarily caused by the inability to absorb vitamin B12 through the digestive system, bypassing the digestive tract by injecting vitamin B12 directly into the bloodstream is an effective treatment. Iron supplements may be used to treat iron-deficiency anemia, folate supplements for folate deficiency anemia, and vitamin D supplements for vitamin D deficiency, but these are not the standard treatments for pernicious anemia.

Show the answer: The correct answer is D

Which of the following is a common risk factor for the development of cirrhosis?

A. Regular exercise.
B. Moderate alcohol consumption.
C. Chronic viral hepatitis infection.
D. High-fiber diet.

Explanation for Question 1: Chronic viral hepatitis infection, particularly hepatitis B and C, is a common risk factor for the development of cirrhosis. These infections can lead to ongoing liver inflammation and damage, eventually progressing to cirrhosis. Regular exercise, moderate alcohol consumption, and a high-fiber diet are generally healthy lifestyle choices but are not directly associated with an increased risk of cirrhosis.

Show the answer: The correct answer is C

What is the primary function of the liver in the context of cirrhosis?

A. Producing insulin.
B. Storing excess bile.
C. Detoxifying harmful substances.
D. Filtering and purifying blood.

Explanation for Question 2: In the context of cirrhosis, the primary function of the liver is filtering and purifying blood. Cirrhosis leads to extensive scarring of the liver tissue, which impairs its ability to perform various functions, including the detoxification of harmful substances. The liver also plays a role in producing insulin, storing bile, and performing other essential functions, but its blood-filtering function is particularly critical in cirrhosis. The scarring and damage to liver tissue can lead to portal hypertension and other complications.

Show the answer: The correct answer is D

Which complication of cirrhosis can result in the accumulation of fluid in the abdominal cavity?

A. Hepatic encephalopathy.
B. Variceal bleeding.
C. Ascites.
D. Cholecystitis.

Explanation for Question 3: The complication of cirrhosis that can result in the accumulation of fluid in the abdominal cavity is called ascites. Ascites occurs due to portal hypertension, a condition in which blood flow through the liver is obstructed, leading to increased pressure in the portal vein. This elevated pressure causes fluid to leak into the abdominal cavity. Hepatic encephalopathy, variceal bleeding, and cholecystitis are other complications of cirrhosis but do not directly cause ascites.

Correct Answer: C

Question 4:

Which dietary modification is typically recommended for individuals with cirrhosis to manage their condition?

A. High-sodium diet.
B. Low-protein diet.
C. High-fat diet.
D. High-fiber diet.

Explanation for Question 4: A low-protein diet is typically recommended for individuals with cirrhosis to manage their condition. Cirrhosis can lead to impaired liver function, including the liver’s ability to metabolize proteins. Reducing protein intake can help minimize the risk of hepatic encephalopathy, a complication associated with cirrhosis. In contrast, high-sodium, high-fat, and high-fiber diets are not usually recommended for cirrhosis management.

Show the answer: The correct answer is B

Which medication is commonly prescribed to individuals with cirrhosis to reduce the risk of variceal bleeding?

A. Antacids.
B. Antibiotics.
C. Beta-blockers.
D. Pain relievers.

Explanation for Question 5: Beta-blockers are commonly prescribed to individuals with cirrhosis to reduce the risk of variceal bleeding. Cirrhosis can lead to the development of varices (enlarged veins) in the esophagus and stomach, which are prone to bleeding. Beta-blockers help lower blood pressure in the portal vein, reducing the risk of variceal rupture and bleeding. Antacids, antibiotics, and pain relievers are not specific treatments for variceal bleeding in cirrhosis.

Show the answer: The correct answer is C

What is hepatic failure, and what are its common causes?

A. Hepatic failure is the sudden cessation of liver function, and its common causes include alcohol consumption and obesity.
B. Hepatic failure is the gradual decline in liver function, and its common causes include viral hepatitis and cirrhosis.
C. Hepatic failure is a respiratory condition, and its common causes include smoking and pollution exposure.
D. Hepatic failure is a neurological disorder, and its common causes include head injuries and brain tumors.

Explanation for Question 1: Hepatic failure, also known as liver failure, is the gradual decline in liver function. Its common causes include viral hepatitis (such as hepatitis B and C), excessive alcohol consumption, cirrhosis (resulting from various factors, including alcohol and viral hepatitis), and other liver diseases. Options A, C, and D describe conditions unrelated to hepatic failure.

Show the answer: The correct answer is B

What are some common signs and symptoms of hepatic encephalopathy?

A. High fever and joint pain.
B. Memory loss and confusion.
C. Shortness of breath and chest pain.
D. Rash and itching.

Explanation for Question 2: Common signs and symptoms of hepatic encephalopathy include memory loss, confusion, and altered mental status. Hepatic encephalopathy is a neurological condition that occurs due to the buildup of toxins in the bloodstream, which affect brain function. High fever, joint pain, shortness of breath, chest pain, rash, and itching are not typical symptoms of hepatic encephalopathy.

Show the answer: The correct answer is B

Which dietary restriction is often recommended for individuals with hepatic failure to manage their condition?

A. Low-sodium diet.
B. High-protein diet.
C. High-fat diet.
D. High-sugar diet.

Explanation for Question 3: A low-sodium diet is often recommended for individuals with hepatic failure to manage their condition. Hepatic failure can lead to fluid retention and ascites (abdominal swelling due to fluid buildup), and reducing sodium intake helps control fluid balance. High-protein, high-fat, and high-sugar diets are generally not recommended for individuals with hepatic failure, as they can exacerbate the condition.

Correct Answer: A

Question 4:

Which laboratory test is commonly used to assess liver function in individuals with hepatic failure?

A. Blood glucose test.
B. Complete blood count (CBC).
C. Liver function tests (LFTs).
D. Urine analysis.

Explanation for Question 4: Liver function tests (LFTs) are commonly used to assess liver function in individuals with hepatic failure. LFTs include measurements of various liver enzymes and proteins, providing valuable information about liver health. Blood glucose tests, CBC, and urine analysis are not specific tests for assessing liver function.

Show the answer: The correct answer is C

What is the most severe and life-threatening complication of hepatic failure?

A. Jaundice.
B. Ascites.
C. Hepatic encephalopathy.
D. Hepatic coma.

Explanation for Question 5: The most severe and life-threatening complication of hepatic failure is hepatic coma. Hepatic coma is a state of profound unconsciousness and altered mental function resulting from the accumulation of toxins in the bloodstream due to impaired liver function. Jaundice, ascites, and hepatic encephalopathy are significant complications but not as severe as hepatic coma.

Show the answer: The correct answer is D

What is Crohn’s disease, and which part of the digestive tract is commonly affected by it?

A. Crohn’s disease is an autoimmune disorder, and it commonly affects the stomach.
B. Crohn’s disease is an inflammatory bowel disease, and it commonly affects the colon.
C. Crohn’s disease is a cardiovascular condition, and it commonly affects the heart.
D. Crohn’s disease is an inflammatory bowel disease, and it commonly affects the small intestine.

Explanation for Question 1: Crohn’s disease is an inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) that commonly affects the small intestine but can also affect any part of the digestive tract from the mouth to the anus. Options A, B, and C provide inaccurate descriptions of Crohn’s disease.

Show the answer: The correct answer is D

What are some common symptoms of Crohn’s disease?

A. Persistent cough and chest pain.
B. Joint pain and muscle weakness.
C. Diarrhea, abdominal pain, and weight loss.
D. Vision changes and hearing loss.

Explanation for Question 2: Common symptoms of Crohn’s disease include diarrhea, abdominal pain, weight loss, fatigue, and sometimes fever. Crohn’s disease primarily affects the gastrointestinal tract, leading to these digestive symptoms. Options A, B, and D describe symptoms unrelated to Crohn’s disease.

Show the answer: The correct answer is C

How is Crohn’s disease typically diagnosed?

A. By physical examination and blood pressure measurement.
B. Through skin biopsy and allergy testing.
C. By stool tests, endoscopy, and imaging studies.
D. By measuring lung capacity and oxygen levels.

Explanation for Question 3: Crohn’s disease is typically diagnosed through a combination of stool tests (to rule out infections), endoscopy (such as colonoscopy or upper endoscopy), and imaging studies (such as CT scans or MRIs) to visualize the digestive tract and confirm the diagnosis. Options A, B, and D describe diagnostic methods unrelated to Crohn’s disease.

Show the answer: The correct answer is

Show the answer: The correct answer is XYZ

What is ulcerative colitis, and which part of the gastrointestinal tract is primarily affected by it?

A. Ulcerative colitis is a lung condition primarily affecting the bronchi.
B. Ulcerative colitis is an autoimmune disorder primarily affecting the skin.
C. Ulcerative colitis is an inflammatory bowel disease primarily affecting the colon and rectum.
D. Ulcerative colitis is a heart condition primarily affecting the coronary arteries.

Explanation for Question 1: Ulcerative colitis is an inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) that primarily affects the colon and rectum. It causes inflammation and ulcers in the lining of the large intestine. Options A, B, and D describe conditions unrelated to ulcerative colitis.

Show the answer: The correct answer is C

What are common symptoms of ulcerative colitis?

A. Joint pain and muscle weakness.
B. Skin rash and itching.
C. Diarrhea, abdominal pain, and rectal bleeding.
D. Vision changes and hearing loss.

Explanation for Question 2: Common symptoms of ulcerative colitis include diarrhea, abdominal pain, rectal bleeding, and an urgent need to have a bowel movement. It primarily affects the gastrointestinal tract, leading to these digestive symptoms. Options A, B, and D describe symptoms unrelated to ulcerative colitis.

Show the answer: The correct answer is C

How is ulcerative colitis typically diagnosed?

A. By physical examination and blood pressure measurement.
B. Through skin biopsy and allergy testing.
C. By stool tests, endoscopy, and imaging studies.
D. By measuring lung capacity and oxygen levels.

Explanation for Question 3: Ulcerative colitis is typically diagnosed through a combination of stool tests (to rule out infections), endoscopy (such as colonoscopy), and imaging studies (such as CT scans or barium enemas) to visualize the colon and confirm the diagnosis. Options A, B, and D describe diagnostic methods unrelated to ulcerative colitis.

Show the answer: The correct answer is C

What are some common treatment options for managing ulcerative colitis?

A. Radiation therapy and chemotherapy.
B. Intravenous antibiotics and antiviral medications.
C. Anti-inflammatory drugs, immunosuppressants, and lifestyle modifications.
D. Physical therapy and exercise.

Explanation for Question 4: Common treatment options for managing ulcerative colitis include anti-inflammatory drugs (such as aminosalicylates), immunosuppressants, biologics, and lifestyle modifications. Options A, B, and D describe treatments unrelated to ulcerative colitis.

Show the answer: The correct answer is C

What is the surgical option for ulcerative colitis if medical treatment fails to provide relief?

A. Heart bypass surgery.
B. Lung transplantation.
C. Liver transplant.
D. Removal of the colon (colectomy) with creation of an ileal pouch (ileal pouch-anal anastomosis, IPAA).

Explanation for Question 5: When medical treatment fails to provide relief for severe ulcerative colitis, the surgical option is often the removal of the colon (colectomy) with the creation of an ileal pouch (ileal pouch-anal anastomosis, IPAA) to allow for normal bowel movements. Options A, B, and C describe surgical procedures unrelated to ulcerative colitis.

Show the answer: The correct answer is D

Which class of medications is commonly used to induce and maintain remission in patients with inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)?

A. Anticoagulants.
B. Antibiotics.
C. Corticosteroids.
D. Antihypertensives.

Explanation for Question 1: Corticosteroids are commonly used to induce and maintain remission in patients with inflammatory bowel disease (IBD). These medications help reduce inflammation in the gastrointestinal tract and alleviate symptoms. Options A, B, and D describe medication classes unrelated to IBD treatment.

Show the answer: The correct answer is C

What is the mechanism of action of biologic medications used in the treatment of inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)?

A. They kill bacteria in the gut.
B. They block immune system signals that cause inflammation.
C. They reduce stomach acid production.
D. They promote bowel movements.

Explanation for Question 2: Biologic medications used in the treatment of IBD block immune system signals that cause inflammation in the gastrointestinal tract. This helps reduce inflammation and manage IBD symptoms. Options A, C, and D describe mechanisms of action unrelated to biologic medications for IBD.

Show the answer: The correct answer is B

Which medication is a common immunosuppressant used in the treatment of inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)?

A. Aspirin.
B. Metformin.
C. Azathioprine.
D. Insulin.

Explanation for Question 3: Azathioprine is a common immunosuppressant medication used in the treatment of IBD. It helps suppress the immune system’s abnormal response in IBD patients. Options A, B, and D are medications unrelated to IBD treatment.

Show the answer: The correct answer is C

Which medication is commonly prescribed to relieve diarrhea in patients with inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)?

A. Antipsychotics.
B. Antihistamines.
C. Antidiarrheal agents (e.g., loperamide).
D. Antifungals.

Explanation for Question 4: Antidiarrheal agents such as loperamide are commonly prescribed to relieve diarrhea in patients with IBD. These medications help reduce bowel movements and manage diarrhea symptoms. Options A, B, and D are medications unrelated to IBD-related diarrhea.

Show the answer: The correct answer is C

What is the primary role of 5-aminosalicylate (5-ASA) medications in the treatment of inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)?

A. Immune system suppression.
B. Pain relief.
C. Reducing gastrointestinal bleeding.
D. Anti-inflammatory action in the gut.

Explanation for Question 5: The primary role of 5-aminosalicylate (5-ASA) medications in the treatment of IBD is their anti-inflammatory action in the gastrointestinal tract. These medications help reduce inflammation and maintain remission. Options A, B, and C describe roles unrelated to 5-ASA medications in IBD treatment.

Show the answer: The correct answer is D

Which of the following is a common symptom of diverticulitis?

A. Severe chest pain.
B. Pain and tenderness in the lower left abdomen.
C. Frequent nosebleeds.
D. Blurred vision.

Explanation for Question 1: Pain and tenderness in the lower left abdomen is a common symptom of diverticulitis. This pain often occurs due to inflammation and infection of the diverticula in the colon. Options A, C, and D describe symptoms unrelated to diverticulitis.

Show the answer: The correct answer is B

What dietary recommendation is commonly given to patients with diverticulitis during the acute phase?

A. High-fiber diet.
B. Low-protein diet.
C. Strict fasting.
D. High-caffeine diet.

Explanation for Question 2: During the acute phase of diverticulitis, patients are often advised to follow a low-fiber diet to reduce irritation to the inflamed diverticula. Options A, C, and D describe dietary recommendations that are typically not advised during this phase.

Show the answer: The correct answer is B

What imaging study is commonly used to diagnose diverticulitis?

A. Electrocardiogram (ECG).
B. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).
C. Computed tomography (CT) scan.
D. Urinalysis.

Explanation for Question 3: Computed tomography (CT) scan is commonly used to diagnose diverticulitis. It provides detailed images of the abdominal area, allowing healthcare providers to visualize inflamed diverticula and assess the severity of the condition. Options A, B, and D are diagnostic tests unrelated to diverticulitis.

Show the answer: The correct answer is C

Which of the following complications can occur as a result of untreated diverticulitis?

A. Hearing loss.
B. Osteoporosis.
C. Abscess formation, perforation, or fistula development.
D. Skin rash.

Explanation for Question 4: Untreated diverticulitis can lead to complications such as abscess formation, perforation of the colon, or the development of fistulas. These complications can be serious and require medical intervention. Options A, B, and D describe unrelated conditions.

Show the answer: The correct answer is C

Which of the following medications is commonly prescribed to manage diverticulitis and reduce inflammation?

A. Antibiotics.
B. Anticoagulants.
C. Antivirals.
D. Anti-anxiety medications.

Explanation for Question 5: Antibiotics are commonly prescribed to manage diverticulitis and reduce inflammation, especially when there is evidence of infection. Options B, C, and D are medications unrelated to diverticulitis treatment.

Show the answer: The correct answer is A

Jane, a 45-year-old patient, has been diagnosed with uncomplicated diverticulitis. What is the primary goal of medication therapy for Jane’s condition?

A. To provide pain relief.
B. To promote bowel regularity.
C. To reduce inflammation and infection.
D. To prevent blood clot formation.

Explanation for Question 1: The primary goal of medication therapy for uncomplicated diverticulitis is to reduce inflammation and infection in the affected area. Options A, B, and D are not the primary goals of treatment for this condition.

Show the answer: The correct answer is C

Mark, a 60-year-old patient, is experiencing recurrent episodes of diverticulitis. Which class of medications is commonly used for long-term management to prevent recurrence?

A. Antibiotics.
B. Laxatives.
C. Antiplatelet agents.
D. Bulk-forming agents.

Explanation for Question 2: For long-term management to prevent recurrence of diverticulitis, healthcare providers may use bulk-forming agents. These agents help maintain regular bowel movements and reduce the risk of diverticula becoming inflamed. Options A, B, and C are not commonly used for this purpose.

Show the answer: The correct answer is D

A 50-year-old patient, has been prescribed a medication to manage her diverticulitis. This medication works by relaxing smooth muscles in the intestine, easing bowel movements, and preventing spasms. What class of medication is Sarah likely taking?

A. Antibiotics.
B. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs).
C. Antispasmodics.
D. Anticoagulants.

Explanation for Question 3: Sarah is likely taking an antispasmodic medication to relax smooth muscles in the intestine. This can help ease bowel movements and prevent spasms, which can be beneficial in managing diverticulitis. Options A, B, and D are not typically used for this purpose.

Show the answer: The correct answer is C

A 55-year-old patient with diverticulitis, has been prescribed a medication that absorbs water in the intestine, making stools softer and easier to pass. Which class of medication does this describe?

A. Antibiotics.
B. Laxatives.
C. Antispasmodics.
D. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs).

Explanation for Question 4: John is likely taking a laxative medication, which absorbs water in the intestine to make stools softer and easier to pass. This can help relieve symptoms associated with diverticulitis. Options A, C, and D are not typically used for this purpose.

Show the answer: The correct answer is B

HOMEPAGE

NCLEX QBank

A 40-year-old patient, is allergic to penicillin and has diverticulitis. Which class of antibiotics should be avoided in Emily’s treatment due to her penicillin allergy?

A. Macrolides.
B. Cephalosporins.
C. Tetracyclines.
D. Aminoglycosides.

Explanation for Question 5: Emily should avoid cephalosporins due to her penicillin allergy, as cross-reactivity between these antibiotic classes is possible. Options A, C, and D are not associated with the same level of cross-reactivity.

Show the answer: The correct answer is B