A 45-year-old patient presents to the clinic with a persistent cough, night sweats, and unintentional weight loss. The patient has a history of diabetes mellitus. Chest X-ray reveals infiltrates in the upper lobe of the right lung. The healthcare provider suspects tuberculosis. What is the primary method for confirming the diagnosis?
A. Complete blood count (CBC)
B. Tuberculin skin test (TST)
C. Sputum culture
D. Chest CT scan
E. Blood glucose level
Rationale:
Sputum culture is the gold standard for diagnosing tuberculosis, allowing for the identification and isolation of Mycobacterium tuberculosis. While other tests may provide supportive information, such as a positive TST or characteristic findings on imaging, a sputum culture is essential for definitive diagnosis and to guide appropriate treatment. Correct Answer: C. Sputum culture
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A 28-year-old nurse working in a tuberculosis clinic is providing education to a group of patients. One patient asks about the duration of treatment for tuberculosis. What is the appropriate response?
A. 2 weeks
B. 6 weeks
C. 3 months
D. 6 months
E. 1 year
Rationale:
The standard treatment duration for uncomplicated tuberculosis is a six-month regimen. This prolonged course is necessary to ensure complete eradication of the Mycobacterium tuberculosis bacteria and prevent the development of drug resistance. Shortening the treatment duration may lead to treatment failure and an increased risk of relapse.
A 60-year-old patient with a history of tuberculosis completed the recommended treatment six months ago. The patient now presents with cough and hemoptysis. What is the most likely cause of these symptoms?
A. Pneumonia
B. Lung cancer
C. Influenza
D. Bronchitis
E. Tuberculosis relapse
Rationale:
Hemoptysis and cough in a patient with a history of tuberculosis, even after completing treatment, raise suspicion for a possible relapse. Tuberculosis can remain dormant and reactivate, leading to recurrent symptoms. Healthcare providers should promptly investigate and assess for tuberculosis relapse, which may require a reevaluation of treatment options based on drug sensitivity testing. Regular follow-up is crucial to monitor and prevent such occurrences.
A 32-year-old patient is prescribed a combination of isoniazid and rifampin for the treatment of tuberculosis. The patient is concerned about potential side effects. What should the nurse include in the teaching about these medications?
A. “Take the medications on an empty stomach for better absorption.”
B. “Avoid dairy products while taking these medications.”
C. “Report any yellowing of the skin or eyes immediately.”
D. “Stop the medications if you feel better before completing the course.”
E. “Take the medications with antacids for gastric protection.”
Rationale: Isoniazid and rifampin can cause hepatotoxicity, and the development of yellowing of the skin or eyes (jaundice) is indicative of liver dysfunction. Prompt reporting of such symptoms is crucial to prevent severe liver damage. While taking the medications with food can reduce gastrointestinal upset, the focus should be on recognizing and reporting potential signs of adverse effects, ensuring timely intervention.
A 22-year-old college student is diagnosed with latent tuberculosis infection. The healthcare provider prescribes isoniazid for prophylaxis. What is the primary purpose of isoniazid prophylaxis?
A. To treat active tuberculosis infection
B. To prevent the development of drug resistance
C. To relieve cough and respiratory symptoms
D. To reduce the risk of transmission to others
E. To enhance immune system function
Rationale: Isoniazid prophylaxis is prescribed for individuals with latent tuberculosis infection to prevent progression to active disease and reduce the risk of transmission to others. It is not intended to treat active infection or relieve symptoms. While isoniazid has a role in preventing drug resistance, its primary goal in prophylaxis is to interrupt the chain of transmission and prevent the spread of tuberculosis in the community.
A 50-year-old patient with tuberculosis is prescribed a multidrug regimen, including ethambutol. The patient complains of blurred vision. What action should the nurse take?
A. Instruct the patient to continue taking the medication.
B. Administer an additional dose of ethambutol for better effect.
C. Discontinue ethambutol and notify the healthcare provider.
D. Recommend the use of over-the-counter eye drops.
E. Suggest wearing sunglasses to alleviate blurred vision.
Rationale: Ethambutol is associated with optic neuritis, which can cause blurred vision. Any visual disturbances should be promptly reported, and ethambutol discontinued to prevent permanent optic nerve damage. Continuing the medication may worsen the condition. The healthcare provider should be informed for further evaluation and possible adjustment of the treatment regimen to ensure patient safety. Regular monitoring of visual acuity is essential during ethambutol therapy.
A 35-year-old patient is diagnosed with active tuberculosis. The healthcare provider prescribes a combination of rifampin, isoniazid, ethambutol, and pyrazinamide. The patient asks the nurse about potential side effects. What should the nurse include in the response?
A. “Limit your fluid intake to reduce the risk of dehydration.”
B. “Expect orange discoloration of your body fluids, such as urine and tears.”
C. “Take all medications on an empty stomach for optimal effectiveness.”
D. “Use antacids to relieve gastrointestinal discomfort.”
E. “Stop taking the medications if you experience joint pain.”
Rationale: Rifampin, one of the medications in the regimen, can cause orange discoloration of body fluids. This is a harmless side effect but can be alarming to patients. Informing the patient about this expected effect promotes understanding and reduces anxiety. The other options provide incorrect information or could compromise the effectiveness of the treatment.

A 25-year-old healthcare worker is exposed to a patient with active tuberculosis. The employee health nurse recommends a tuberculin skin test (TST) for screening. How should the nurse interpret the TST results?
A. 3 mm induration indicates a positive result.
B. 10 mm induration is considered negative.
C. 15 mm induration is suggestive of recent infection.
D. An induration of 6 mm is positive in high-risk individuals.
E. Any induration size should be confirmed with a chest X-ray.
Rationale: In individuals at high risk for tuberculosis, such as healthcare workers, a TST result with an induration of 5 mm or greater is considered positive. This is due to the increased risk of exposure. Other options provide incorrect interpretations or may lead to unnecessary interventions.

A 40-year-old pregnant woman is diagnosed with active tuberculosis. The healthcare team is discussing the treatment plan. What is the primary consideration when managing tuberculosis in pregnancy?
A. Use a combination of antibiotics with caution due to potential harm to the fetus.
B. Delay treatment until after delivery to avoid teratogenic effects.
C. Continue standard tuberculosis treatment, adjusting drug dosages as needed.
D. Administer antiviral medications instead of standard tuberculosis drugs.
E. Recommend early induction of labor to start treatment promptly.
Rationale: Pregnant women with tuberculosis should receive standard anti-tuberculosis treatment, adjusting drug dosages as needed. Treatment is crucial to prevent maternal and fetal complications. Delaying treatment or using alternative medications may pose greater risks. The healthcare team should closely monitor the patient and adjust the treatment plan to ensure both maternal and fetal well-being.

