Medical Surgical Question: A patient with a history of type 2 diabetes is taking metformin to manage blood glucose levels. The patient experiences a respiratory infection and is prescribed a course of antibiotics. What should the nurse advise the patient regarding the timing of metformin administration during the antibiotic therapy?
A. Take metformin immediately before taking the antibiotic.
B. Take metformin immediately after taking the antibiotic.
C. Continue taking metformin as usual.
D. Discontinue metformin until the antibiotic course is completed.
qbankproacademy.com/medical-surgical-nursing-exam-questions-qbank-endocrine/
Explanation: Metformin or glucophage is commonly used in Type 2, diabetes. It is not typically affected by antibiotics, and it should be continued as prescribed. Options A and B may lead to potential interactions or digestive discomfort, and option D is not necessary unless specifically advised by a healthcare provider. Endocrine
POP QUIZ Medical Surgical Nursing Question
@qbankproacademy 4000+ Free NCLEX QUESTIONS. Go to QBankProAcademy.com FREE Qbank questions for NCLEX RN, PN, HESI Exit, Med Surg, AANP, ANCC, and HesiA2. Practice questions, quizzes, and listen to the Free Podcast. In this video, we review a question on Hyperthyroidism,Graves Disease,Thyroid Eye Disease (exophthalmos) in Nursing Care. At QbankproAcademy.com our mission is to provide free QBanks, videos, and the most up to date test prep information for nurses. If you find our website helpful, please tell other aspiring nurses, nursing students, and professors. Please link to our site from your blogs, videos, and college websites, or share us on your favorite social media sites. Thank you for your support! Free nursing NCLEX 60-DAY CHALLENGE https://qbankpro.thinkific.com/courses/qbankpro-academy nclex Nurses Nursing aanp qbank ancc hesi qbank
♬ original sound – QBank Pro Academy – QBank Pro Academy
Medical Surgical Nursing Questions: Endocrine Questions
Medical Surgical Question: A 50-year-old male presents with extreme fatigue, muscle weakness, and unintentional weight loss. Laboratory results show elevated levels of serum calcium and low levels of parathyroid hormone (PTH). What is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Hyperparathyroidism
B) Hyperthyroidism
C) Hypoparathyroidism
D) Diabetes mellitus
qbankproacademy.com/medical-surgical-nursing-exam-questions-qbank-endocrine/
Explanation: The patient’s symptoms of fatigue, muscle weakness, unintentional weight loss, elevated serum calcium, and low PTH levels are suggestive of hypoparathyroidism, an endocrine disorder characterized by inadequate parathyroid hormone production. Hyperparathyroidism (choice A) would lead to elevated PTH levels. Hyperthyroidism (choice B) typically presents with different symptoms such as weight loss, anxiety, and increased heart rate. Diabetes mellitus (choice D) is unrelated to the parathyroid gland and calcium regulation.
Medical Surgical Question: A 45-year-old female with a history of rheumatoid arthritis is scheduled for elective surgery. She takes daily prednisone for disease management. What is the most appropriate action regarding her corticosteroid therapy before surgery?
A) Continue prednisone therapy as usual
B) Discontinue prednisone 24 hours before surgery
C) Switch to a disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD) before surgery
D) Administer an additional dose of prednisone before surgery
qbankproacademy.com/medical-surgical-nursing-exam-questions-qbank-endocrine/
Explanation: In patients with rheumatoid arthritis scheduled for surgery who are taking prednisone, it is generally recommended to continue prednisone therapy as usual (Option A) to maintain disease control and prevent exacerbation of symptoms. Abruptly discontinuing prednisone (Option B) can lead to adrenal insufficiency and worsening of autoimmune disease activity. Switching to a disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD) (Option C) may not be necessary unless there are specific concerns or indications. Administering an additional dose of prednisone (Option D) before surgery is not typically required for patients on stable corticosteroid therapy.
Endocrine System: Medical Surgical Nursing Questions
Medical Surgical Question: A 23-year-old-female reports hair growth on her face and chest. On physical examination, you notice acanthosis nigricans. Which endocrine disorder is most likely responsible for her symptoms?
A) Cushing’s syndrome
B) Hyperthyroidism
C) Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS)
D) Addison’s disease
qbankproacademy.com/medical-surgical-nursing-exam-questions-qbank-endocrine/
Explanation: The patient’s symptoms of irregular menstrual cycles, weight gain, excessive hair growth (hirsutism), and acanthosis nigricans are indicative of PCOS, an endocrine disorder associated with hormonal imbalances. Cushing’s syndrome (choice A) typically presents with different physical features and elevated cortisol levels. Hyperthyroidism (choice B) may cause irregular periods but is not typically associated with hirsutism. Addison’s disease (choice D) would present with fatigue and low blood pressure, among other symptoms, but not the symptoms described.
Medical Surgical Question: A 65-year-old male patient with pancreatic cancer is receiving chemotherapy. He complains of persistent nausea and vomiting, which is affecting his ability to tolerate food and medications. What is the most appropriate pharmacological intervention for managing chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting in this patient?
A) Antibiotics
B) Loperamide (Imodium)
C) Pain relievers
D) Prophylactic antibiotics
E) Antiemetic medications such as ondansetron (Zofran)
qbankproacademy.com/medical-surgical-nursing-exam-questions-qbank-endocrine/
Explanation: Antiemetic medications like ondansetron (Zofran) are commonly used to manage chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting. These medications work by blocking signals in the brain that trigger nausea and vomiting. They can significantly improve a patient’s quality of life during chemotherapy by preventing or reducing these distressing side effects.
Medical Surgical Nursing Practice Questions: Endocrine Review
Medical Surgical Question: A 55-year-old female patient with ovarian cancer is undergoing chemotherapy. She experiences extreme fatigue and a significant decrease in her hemoglobin levels. What is the most appropriate intervention for managing chemotherapy-induced anemia in this patient?
A) Increasing fluid intake
B) Administering prophylactic antibiotics
C) Reducing chemotherapy dose
D) Blood transfusion
E) Encouraging physical activity
qbankproacademy.com/medical-surgical-nursing-exam-questions-qbank-endocrine/
Explanation: For patients experiencing severe anemia due to chemotherapy, a blood transfusion may be necessary to restore hemoglobin levels and alleviate symptoms such as fatigue and weakness. The decision to transfuse should be made based on the patient’s clinical condition and hemoglobin levels, as determined by their healthcare provider.
Medical Surgical Question: A 45-year-old patient presents with severe abdominal pain radiating to the back, nausea, and vomiting. Laboratory tests show elevated amylase and lipase levels. What is the most common cause of acute pancreatitis?
Gallstones are the most common cause of acute pancreatitis. They can obstruct the pancreatic duct, leading to inflammation and enzyme release into the pancreas, causing the characteristic symptoms.
Medical Surgical Nursing Questions: Diabetes Review
Medical Surgical Question: A 35-year-old patient with acute pancreatitis has developed pseudocysts. What is the typical management approach for pseudocysts?
The typical management approach for pseudocysts in acute pancreatitis is conservative management, which involves observation and monitoring for resolution or intervention if necessary. Surgical drainage is reserved for complications.
Medical Surgical Question: A 60-year-old patient with chronic pancreatitis is at risk of developing diabetes mellitus. What type of diabetes is commonly associated with chronic pancreatitis?
Chronic pancreatitis is commonly associated with the development of type 2 diabetes due to the progressive loss of pancreatic function and insulin production over time.
Medical Surgical Nursing Questions: Adrenal Gland Disorders
Medical Surgical Question: A 55-year-old patient with diabetes is undergoing surgery. What type of diet should be prescribed for the patient in the perioperative period?
Before surgery, patients are often placed on an NPO (Nothing by mouth) diet to prevent complications during anesthesia and surgery. The patient’s blood glucose levels will be closely monitored.
Medical Surgical Question: A 64-year-old patient with diabetes is undergoing surgery. What type of diet should be prescribed for the patient in the perioperative period?
Before surgery, patients are often placed on an NPO (Nothing by mouth) diet to prevent complications during anesthesia and surgery. The patient’s blood glucose levels will be closely monitored.
Medical Surgical Nursing Exam Questions: Preoperative and Postoperative Nursing Care
Medical Surgical Question: A 53-year-old patient with diabetes is undergoing surgery. What type of diet should be prescribed for the patient in the perioperative period?
Before surgery, patients are often placed on an NPO (Nothing by mouth) diet to prevent complications during anesthesia and surgery. The patient’s blood glucose levels will be closely monitored.
Medical Surgical Question: A 58-year-old patient with diabetes is undergoing surgery. What type of diet should be prescribed for the patient in the perioperative period?
Before surgery, patients are often placed on an NPO (Nothing by mouth) diet to prevent complications during anesthesia and surgery. The patient’s blood glucose levels will be closely monitored.
Medical Surgical Nursing Practice Questions: Study Guide for Diabetes
Medical Surgical Question: A 60-year-old patient with a history of diabetes is admitted with symptoms of hyperglycemia, including excessive thirst and frequent urination. What electrolyte imbalance is commonly associated with hyperglycemia, and how should it be managed?
Hyperglycemia is commonly associated with hyponatremia. Management involves administering hypertonic saline to correct sodium levels while addressing hyperglycemia.
Medical Surgical Question: A 38-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes is struggling with weight gain despite efforts to control blood sugar levels. What medication class should be considered for weight management in this patient with diabetes?
Sodium-glucose cotransporter 2 (SGLT2) inhibitors are a class of medications that can be considered for weight management in patients with type 2 diabetes. These medications may lead to weight loss in addition to their blood sugar-lowering effects.
Medical Surgical Nursing Questions: NCLEX Review
Medical Surgical Question: A 45-year-old male presents with hypotension, fatigue, and weight loss. Laboratory tests show low cortisol levels and elevated adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH). Imaging studies reveal adrenal gland atrophy. What is the most likely diagnosis, and what additional test may be helpful?
A) Cushing’s disease; low-dose dexamethasone suppression test
B) Hypothyroidism; thyroid function tests
C) Addison’s disease; 21-hydroxylase antibody test
D) Pheochromocytoma; 24-hour urine metanephrines
qbankproacademy.com/medical-surgical-nursing-exam-questions-qbank-endocrine/
Explanation: The clinical presentation of hypotension, fatigue, weight loss, low cortisol levels, elevated ACTH, and adrenal gland atrophy suggests Addison’s disease. An additional test that may be helpful in confirming the diagnosis is the 21-hydroxylase antibody test, which can detect autoimmune adrenal gland destruction.
Medical Surgical Question: A 38-year-old female presents with excessive thirst, frequent urination, and unexplained weight loss. Her blood glucose levels are consistently elevated. Which endocrine disorder is most likely responsible for her symptoms?
A) Hypothyroidism
B) Addison’s disease
C) Cushing’s syndrome
D) Diabetes mellitus
qbankproacademy.com/medical-surgical-nursing-exam-questions-qbank-endocrine/
Explanation: The patient’s symptoms of excessive thirst, frequent urination, unexplained weight loss, and elevated blood glucose levels are characteristic of diabetes mellitus, a common endocrine disorder. Hypothyroidism (choice A) typically presents with fatigue, weight gain, and cold intolerance. Addison’s disease (choice B) presents with symptoms like fatigue, weakness, and low blood pressure. Cushing’s syndrome (choice C) is associated with weight gain, buffalo hump, and moon face.
Medical Surgical Nursing Test Bank
Medical Surgical Question: A 39-year-old male complains of sudden, severe headaches, palpitations, excessive sweating, and anxiety. On examination, his blood pressure is significantly elevated. Which endocrine disorder is most likely responsible for his symptoms?
A) Hypoparathyroidism
B) Pheochromocytoma
C) Hyperthyroidism
D) Diabetes mellitus
qbankproacademy.com/medical-surgical-nursing-exam-questions-qbank-endocrine/
Explanation: The patient’s symptoms of severe headaches, palpitations, excessive sweating, anxiety, and significantly elevated blood pressure are suggestive of pheochromocytoma, an adrenal gland tumor that releases excessive catecholamines. Hypoparathyroidism (choice A) typically presents with neuromuscular irritability, not these symptoms. Hyperthyroidism (choice C) may cause palpitations and anxiety but is not typically associated with severe headaches and markedly elevated blood pressure. Diabetes mellitus (choice D) presents with different symptoms such as thirst and frequent urination.
Medical Surgical Question: A 50-year-old male presents with extreme fatigue, muscle weakness, and unintentional weight loss. Laboratory results show elevated levels of serum calcium and low levels of parathyroid hormone (PTH). What is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Hyperparathyroidism
B) Hyperthyroidism
C) Hypoparathyroidism
D) Diabetes mellitus
qbankproacademy.com/medical-surgical-nursing-exam-questions-qbank-endocrine/
Explanation: The patient’s symptoms of fatigue, muscle weakness, unintentional weight loss, elevated serum calcium, and low PTH levels are suggestive of hypoparathyroidism, an endocrine disorder characterized by inadequate parathyroid hormone production. Hyperparathyroidism (choice A) would lead to elevated PTH levels. Hyperthyroidism (choice B) typically presents with different symptoms such as weight loss, anxiety, and increased heart rate. Diabetes mellitus (choice D) is unrelated to the parathyroid gland and calcium regulation.
Medical Surgical Nursing Quiz
Medical Surgical Question: A 60-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes is prescribed a sulfonylurea medication (e.g., glyburide). The nurse should educate the patient that one of the common side effects of sulfonylureas is:
A. Weight loss
B. Hypoglycemia
C. Gastrointestinal upset
D. Bradycardia
qbankproacademy.com/medical-surgical-nursing-exam-questions-qbank-endocrine/
Explanation: Hypoglycemia (low blood glucose levels) is a common side effect of sulfonylureas like glyburide, especially if the dose is too high or the patient does not eat as expected. They are not associated with weight loss (option A), gastrointestinal upset (option C), or bradycardia (option D).
Medical Surgical Question: A 30-year-old female presents with muscle weakness, hypertension, and a buffalo hump on her upper back. Laboratory tests show elevated cortisol levels, low potassium levels, and metabolic alkalosis. What is the most likely diagnosis, and what test should be performed to confirm it?
A) Addison’s disease; low-dose dexamethasone suppression test
B) Cushing’s disease; high-dose dexamethasone suppression test
C) Hyperthyroidism; thyroid function tests
D) Conn’s syndrome; 24-hour urine aldosterone
qbankproacademy.com/medical-surgical-nursing-exam-questions-qbank-endocrine/
Explanation: The clinical presentation of muscle weakness, hypertension, a buffalo hump, elevated cortisol levels, low potassium levels, and metabolic alkalosis is suggestive of Cushing’s disease. The diagnosis should be confirmed with a high-dose dexamethasone suppression test.
Endocrine Medications: Medical Surgical Nursing
A 32-year-old female presents with chronic fatigue, weight loss, hyperpigmentation, and episodes of hypotension. Her laboratory results show hyponatremia and hyperkalemia. A diagnostic test reveals a low cortisol level. What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?
A) Cushing’s syndrome
B) Graves’ disease
C) Addison’s disease
D) Diabetes insipidus
E) Hypothyroidism
Explanation: The patient’s symptoms of chronic fatigue, weight loss, hyperpigmentation, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, and low cortisol levels are indicative of Addison’s disease, a condition characterized by adrenal gland insufficiency.
NCLEX Endocrine Medications
A 30-year-old male presents with a sudden onset of weakness, dizziness, and abdominal pain. On physical examination, the patient’s skin appears hyperpigmented, and his blood pressure is significantly lower than his baseline. Laboratory results show hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, and a low morning cortisol level. Which diagnostic test should be ordered to confirm the diagnosis of Addison’s disease?
A) Serum aldosterone level
B) Serum thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
C) Serum insulin-like growth factor (IGF-1)
D) Serum parathyroid hormone (PTH)
E) Serum anti-thyroid peroxidase (TPO) antibodies
qbankproacademy.com/medical-surgical-nursing-exam-questions-qbank-endocrine/
Explanation: To confirm the diagnosis of Addison’s disease, measuring the serum aldosterone level is crucial, as decreased aldosterone production is a characteristic feature of this condition.
A 25-year-old female presents with fatigue, weight loss, and generalized weakness. Physical examination reveals hyperpigmentation of the oral mucosa. Laboratory tests show hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, and a low morning cortisol level. Which diagnostic test is the gold standard for confirming the diagnosis of Addison’s disease?
A) Serum aldosterone level
B) Serum thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
C) 24-hour urinary free cortisol test
D) Serum 25-hydroxyvitamin D level
E) Serum anti-thyroid peroxidase (TPO) antibodies
qbankproacademy.com/medical-surgical-nursing-exam-questions-qbank-endocrine/
Explanation: The 24-hour urinary free cortisol test is the gold standard for confirming the diagnosis of Addison’s disease, as it helps to evaluate cortisol production and its diurnal variation.
A 40-year-old male presents with fatigue, nausea, and abdominal pain. Laboratory results reveal hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, and a low morning cortisol level. The physician suspects Addison’s disease and orders an ACTH stimulation test. What would be the expected response in a patient with Addison’s disease?
A) A robust increase in cortisol levels
B) A moderate increase in cortisol levels
C) No change in cortisol levels
D) A decrease in cortisol levels
E) An increase in aldosterone levels
qbankproacademy.com/medical-surgical-nursing-exam-questions-qbank-endocrine/
Explanation: In a patient with Addison’s disease, the ACTH stimulation test typically results in no significant change in cortisol levels due to adrenal insufficiency.
A 35-year-old female presents with fatigue, muscle weakness, and a craving for salty foods. Laboratory tests show hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, and a low morning cortisol level. The physician orders an ACTH stimulation test, which results in a robust increase in cortisol levels. What is the most likely diagnosis in this case?
A) Addison’s disease
B) Cushing’s syndrome
C) Hypothyroidism
D) Pheochromocytoma
E) Hyperparathyroidism
Explanation: In this scenario, a robust increase in cortisol levels following an ACTH stimulation test indicates Cushing’s syndrome, a condition characterized by excessive cortisol production, not Addison’s disease.
Endocrine Assessment: Medical Surgical Nursing Practice Questions
A 28-year-old male presents with severe fatigue, dizziness, and muscle pain. Laboratory results show hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, and a low morning cortisol level. The physician suspects Addison’s disease and orders an MRI of the adrenal glands, which reveals atrophy of the adrenal cortex. What is the likely diagnosis based on these findings?
A) Addison’s disease
B) Cushing’s syndrome
C) Diabetes insipidus
D) Pheochromocytoma
E) Hypothyroidism
qbankproacademy.com/medical-surgical-nursing-exam-questions-qbank-endocrine/
Explanation: The presence of atrophy of the adrenal cortex on an MRI, along with the patient’s symptoms and laboratory findings, strongly supports the diagnosis of Addison’s disease, which is characterized by adrenal gland insufficiency.
A 28-year-old female with a confirmed diagnosis of Addison’s disease presents with symptoms of fatigue, weakness, and hyperpigmentation. Her laboratory tests reveal low cortisol levels and elevated ACTH. What is the initial treatment of choice for this patient?
A) Hydrocortisone replacement therapy
B) Levothyroxine
C) Metformin
D) Insulin therapy
E) Antifungal cream
Explanation: The initial treatment for Addison’s disease involves hydrocortisone replacement therapy to address the cortisol deficiency and manage the patient’s symptoms.
A 35-year-old male with Addison’s disease is experiencing an adrenal crisis, characterized by severe hypotension and altered mental status. What is the immediate treatment of choice for this life-threatening condition?
A) Intravenous fluids and hydrocortisone
B) Oral potassium supplements
C) High-dose insulin and dextrose
D) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
E) Intramuscular epinephrine
qbankproacademy.com/medical-surgical-nursing-exam-questions-qbank-endocrine/
Explanation: In an adrenal crisis, the immediate treatment of choice involves intravenous fluids to address hypotension and intravenous hydrocortisone to replace cortisol and manage the crisis.
A 40-year-old female with Addison’s disease is planning to become pregnant. Which medication adjustment is necessary to ensure a healthy pregnancy for this patient?
A) Increase in hydrocortisone dose
B) Discontinue hydrocortisone
C) Switch to oral contraceptive pills
D) Start statin therapy
E) Initiate diuretics
qbankproacademy.com/medical-surgical-nursing-exam-questions-qbank-endocrine/
Explanation: During pregnancy, adrenal hormone requirements increase, and patients with Addison’s disease should have an increased hydrocortisone dose to support the pregnancy and prevent complications.
A 45-year-old male with Addison’s disease is scheduled for surgery. What should be emphasized to the surgical team to ensure a safe perioperative period for this patient?
A) The need for increased sedation
B) The avoidance of intravenous fluids
C) The importance of continuing hydrocortisone therapy
D) The exclusion of any antibiotics
E) The need for higher-dose anesthesia
qbankproacademy.com/medical-surgical-nursing-exam-questions-qbank-endocrine/
Explanation: In patients with Addison’s disease, it is crucial to continue hydrocortisone therapy during surgery to prevent an adrenal crisis and ensure a safe perioperative period.
A 32-year-old male with Addison’s disease is experiencing recurrent episodes of hypotension and weakness despite being on hydrocortisone replacement therapy. What additional medication might be prescribed to improve his blood pressure control?
A) Albuterol inhaler
B) Antibiotics
C) Calcium channel blocker
D) Fludrocortisone
E) Insulin therapy
qbankproacademy.com/medical-surgical-nursing-exam-questions-qbank-endocrine/
Explanation: Fludrocortisone, a mineralocorticoid replacement, may be added to the treatment regimen for patients with Addison’s disease to help manage blood pressure and electrolyte balance more effectively.
A) Surgery to remove the pituitary adenoma
B) Radiation therapy
C) High-dose corticosteroids
D) Thyroid hormone replacement
E) Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors
Explanation: The primary treatment for Cushing’s disease, which is often caused by a pituitary adenoma, is surgical removal of the tumor to reduce excess cortisol production.
A 30-year-old male is diagnosed with Cushing’s disease due to an adrenal adenoma. What treatment option is commonly recommended when surgical intervention is not possible?
A) Surgical removal of the adrenal gland
B) Radiation therapy
C) High-dose corticosteroids
D) Thyroid hormone replacement
E) Adrenal enzyme inhibitors
qbankproacademy.com/medical-surgical-nursing-exam-questions-qbank-endocrine/
Explanation: When surgery is not possible or ineffective, the use of adrenal enzyme inhibitors, such as ketoconazole or metyrapone, is a common approach to manage Cushing’s disease caused by an adrenal adenoma.
A 40-year-old female with Cushing’s disease presents with uncontrolled hypertension and a lack of response to surgery or medical therapy. What alternative treatment may be considered for this patient?
A) Radioactive iodine (131I) therapy
B) Laparoscopic adrenalectomy
C) Thyroid hormone replacement
D) Electroconvulsive therapy
E) Anti-arrhythmic medication
qbankproacademy.com/medical-surgical-nursing-exam-questions-qbank-endocrine/
Explanation: In patients with uncontrolled Cushing’s disease or those who do not respond to other treatments, a laparoscopic adrenalectomy, the surgical removal of one or both adrenal glands, may be considered.
A 55-year-old male is diagnosed with Cushing’s disease, and the healthcare provider decides on medical therapy to reduce cortisol production. What medication, often used as a second-line option, may be prescribed in this scenario?
A) Levothyroxine
B) Hydrochlorothiazide
C) High-dose corticosteroids
D) Spironolactone
E) Statins
qbankproacademy.com/medical-surgical-nursing-exam-questions-qbank-endocrine/
Explanation: Spironolactone, an aldosterone receptor antagonist, is sometimes used as a second-line therapy in Cushing’s disease to reduce the effects of excess cortisol, particularly for its mineralocorticoid receptor blocking properties.
A 35-year-old female presents with symptoms of Cushing’s disease, including weight gain, muscle weakness, and mood changes. Laboratory tests confirm elevated serum cortisol levels. What initial treatment approach is recommended to manage this patient’s condition?
A) Antihypertensive medications
B) High-dose corticosteroids
C) Radiation therapy
D) Thyroid hormone replacement
E) Surgical resection of the pituitary adenoma
qbankproacademy.com/medical-surgical-nursing-exam-questions-qbank-endocrine/
Explanation: The initial treatment approach for Cushing’s disease is surgical resection of the pituitary adenoma, as this aims to correct the root cause of the condition by reducing excess cortisol production.
A 28-year-old female presents with weight gain, round face, and purple abdominal striae. She reports increased thirst and frequent urination. Laboratory tests show elevated serum cortisol levels. What is the most appropriate diagnostic test for confirming Cushing’s disease?
A) Urine dipstick for glucose
B) Serum thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
C) Dexamethasone suppression test
D) Serum cholesterol levels
E) Serum parathyroid hormone (PTH)
qbankproacademy.com/medical-surgical-nursing-exam-questions-qbank-endocrine/
Explanation: The dexamethasone suppression test is the most appropriate diagnostic test for Cushing’s disease. It involves the administration of dexamethasone and subsequent measurement of cortisol levels, with a lack of suppression indicating the presence of the disease.
A 35-year-old male presents with unexplained weight gain, fatigue, and muscle weakness. Physical examination reveals a moon-shaped face and a buffalo hump. Laboratory tests show elevated serum cortisol levels. Which test is commonly used to differentiate between Cushing’s disease and Cushing’s syndrome?
A) Serum aldosterone level
B) 24-hour urinary free cortisol test
C) ACTH stimulation test
D) Serum insulin-like growth factor (IGF-1)
E) Serum thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
qbankproacademy.com/medical-surgical-nursing-exam-questions-qbank-endocrine/
Explanation: The ACTH stimulation test is commonly used to differentiate between Cushing’s disease (resulting from excessive ACTH production by the pituitary) and Cushing’s syndrome (resulting from various causes, including adrenal tumors). In Cushing’s disease, cortisol levels will increase in response to ACTH administration.
A 45-year-old female presents with typical signs and symptoms of Cushing’s disease, including weight gain, hypertension, and muscle weakness. Her 24-hour urinary free cortisol test results are elevated. What diagnostic test can help identify the source of excess cortisol production?
A) Serum aldosterone level
B) Serum thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
C) High-dose dexamethasone suppression test
D) Serum parathyroid hormone (PTH)
E) Serum insulin-like growth factor (IGF-1)
qbankproacademy.com/medical-surgical-nursing-exam-questions-qbank-endocrine/
Explanation: The high-dose dexamethasone suppression test can help differentiate between pituitary (Cushing’s disease) and non-pituitary causes of excess cortisol production by evaluating the suppressibility of cortisol levels in response to high-dose dexamethasone.
A 32-year-old male presents with symptoms suggestive of Cushing’s disease, such as weight gain, muscle weakness, and purple abdominal striae. Laboratory tests reveal elevated serum cortisol levels. What diagnostic test is most useful for identifying the underlying cause of Cushing’s disease?
A) Serum aldosterone level
B) Serum cortisol levels after a low-dose dexamethasone suppression test
C) Serum thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
D) 24-hour urinary free cortisol test
E) Serum parathyroid hormone (PTH)
qbankproacademy.com/medical-surgical-nursing-exam-questions-qbank-endocrine/
Explanation: A low-dose dexamethasone suppression test is useful in identifying the underlying cause of Cushing’s disease, as it helps distinguish between pituitary and non-pituitary sources of excess cortisol production.
A 40-year-old male presents with symptoms suggestive of Cushing’s disease, such as weight gain, round face, and high blood pressure. Laboratory tests reveal elevated serum cortisol levels, and an MRI of the pituitary gland shows no abnormalities. What is the most likely cause of the patient’s condition?
A) Ectopic ACTH production
B) Pituitary microadenoma
C) Thyroid dysfunction
D) Pheochromocytoma
E) Adrenal adenoma
qbankproacademy.com/medical-surgical-nursing-exam-questions-qbank-endocrine/
Explanation: When the pituitary gland appears normal on imaging, and there are elevated cortisol levels, the most likely cause is ectopic ACTH production, often from a non-pituitary tumor, such as in the lungs or elsewhere in the body.
A 35-year-old female presents with weight gain, facial rounding, and abdominal striae. Laboratory tests reveal elevated serum cortisol levels, and a dexamethasone suppression test shows no cortisol suppression. What is the underlying pathophysiology of Cushing’s disease in this patient?
A) Hypothalamic dysfunction
B) Adrenal hyperplasia
C) Pituitary adenoma
D) Adrenal adenoma
E) Thyroid dysfunction
qbankproacademy.com/medical-surgical-nursing-exam-questions-qbank-endocrine/
Explanation: In this patient, the pathophysiology of Cushing’s disease is a pituitary adenoma, which leads to the excessive production of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), causing increased cortisol production.
A 28-year-old male presents with unexplained weight gain, hypertension, and muscle weakness. Laboratory tests show elevated serum cortisol levels and a low-dose dexamethasone suppression test reveals no cortisol suppression. What is the primary pathophysiological mechanism underlying this patient’s condition?
A) Hyperthyroidism
B) Ectopic ACTH production
C) Hyperaldosteronism
D) Adrenal hyperplasia
E) Pituitary microadenoma
qbankproacademy.com/medical-surgical-nursing-exam-questions-qbank-endocrine/
Explanation: The primary pathophysiological mechanism in this case is a pituitary microadenoma, leading to excessive ACTH secretion and cortisol production, a hallmark of Cushing’s disease.
A 40-year-old female presents with symptoms of Cushing’s disease, including weight gain, moon-shaped face, and purple abdominal striae. Her MRI reveals a pituitary macroadenoma. What is the pathophysiological basis of her condition?
A) Thyroid dysfunction
B) Pituitary hyperplasia
C) Adrenal adenoma
D) Adrenal hyperplasia
E) Pituitary adenoma
qbankproacademy.com/medical-surgical-nursing-exam-questions-qbank-endocrine/
Explanation: In this case, the pathophysiology of Cushing’s disease is a pituitary macroadenoma, which leads to the overproduction of ACTH, subsequently causing increased cortisol levels.
A 45-year-old male presents with symptoms suggestive of Cushing’s disease, including weight gain, muscle weakness, and mood changes. Laboratory tests reveal elevated serum cortisol levels and a normal MRI of the pituitary gland. What is the most likely pathophysiological explanation for his condition?
A) Ectopic ACTH production
B) Pituitary microadenoma
C) Thyroid dysfunction
D) Adrenal adenoma
E) Adrenal hyperplasia
qbankproacademy.com/medical-surgical-nursing-exam-questions-qbank-endocrine/
Explanation: In the absence of pituitary abnormalities on MRI, the most likely pathophysiological explanation is ectopic ACTH production, often from non-pituitary tumors, such as lung carcinoids, leading to excess cortisol production.
A 32-year-old female presents with weight gain, hypertension, and mood changes. Laboratory tests reveal elevated serum cortisol levels, and imaging shows no pituitary abnormalities. What is the likely pathophysiology behind her presentation?
A) Hypothalamic dysfunction
B) Pituitary hyperplasia
C) Adrenal adenoma
D) Ectopic CRH production
E) Adrenal hyperplasia
qbankproacademy.com/medical-surgical-nursing-exam-questions-qbank-endocrine/
Explanation: In the absence of pituitary abnormalities, the likely pathophysiological explanation is ectopic corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) production, which stimulates the anterior pituitary to produce excess ACTH, leading to elevated cortisol levels.
A 30-year-old male presents with chronic fatigue, weight loss, hyperpigmentation, and episodes of hypotension. Laboratory results show hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, and low cortisol levels. What is the primary pathophysiological mechanism responsible for this patient’s condition?
A) Pituitary adenoma
B) Hypothalamic dysfunction
C) Adrenal hyperplasia
D) Adrenal insufficiency
E) Ectopic CRH production
Explanation: The primary pathophysiological mechanism underlying this patient’s condition is adrenal insufficiency, which results from the dysfunction of the adrenal glands, leading to decreased cortisol and mineralocorticoid production.
A 25-year-old female presents with weakness, nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain. Laboratory tests reveal hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, and low cortisol levels. What is the key pathophysiological feature contributing to her symptoms?
A) Elevated cortisol levels
B) Increased aldosterone production
C) Decreased ACTH production
D) Hypothalamic dysfunction
E) Impaired thyroid function
qbankproacademy.com/medical-surgical-nursing-exam-questions-qbank-endocrine/
Explanation: The key pathophysiological feature contributing to her symptoms is the decreased production of ACTH (adrenocorticotropic hormone), which stimulates the adrenal glands to produce cortisol and aldosterone. This results in adrenal insufficiency.
A 40-year-old male presents with abdominal pain, nausea, and confusion. His vital signs indicate hypotension and tachycardia. Laboratory tests reveal hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, and low cortisol levels. What is the primary pathophysiological cause of this patient’s condition?
A) Hyperaldosteronism
B) Increased cortisol production
C) Decreased cortisol production
D) Adrenal hyperplasia
E) Ectopic ACTH production
qbankproacademy.com/medical-surgical-nursing-exam-questions-qbank-endocrine/
Explanation: The primary pathophysiological cause of this patient’s condition is decreased cortisol production, resulting in adrenal insufficiency, which leads to the observed symptoms, electrolyte imbalances, and hypotension.
A 35-year-old female presents with extreme fatigue, weight loss, and muscle weakness. She reports experiencing mood changes, including irritability. Laboratory results show hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, and low cortisol levels. What is the central pathophysiological feature of her condition?
A) Hyperparathyroidism
B) Excessive thyroid hormone production
C) Elevated cortisol levels
D) Adrenal hyperplasia
E) Adrenal gland dysfunction
qbankproacademy.com/medical-surgical-nursing-exam-questions-qbank-endocrine/
Explanation: The central pathophysiological feature of her condition is adrenal gland dysfunction, resulting in decreased cortisol and mineralocorticoid production, which manifests as the observed symptoms and electrolyte imbalances.
A 38-year-old male presents with severe fatigue, dizziness, and muscle pain. Laboratory results show hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, and low cortisol levels. What is the key pathophysiological mechanism that accounts for the electrolyte imbalances in this patient?
A) Increased aldosterone production
B) Normal adrenal gland function
C) Overactive thyroid gland
D) Decreased renin secretion
E) Adrenal insufficiency
qbankproacademy.com/medical-surgical-nursing-exam-questions-qbank-endocrine/
Explanation: The key pathophysiological mechanism accounting for the electrolyte imbalances (hyponatremia and hyperkalemia) in this patient is adrenal insufficiency, which results in reduced aldosterone production and the inability to regulate electrolyte balance.
