Get ready for the NCLEX with sample NCLEX test questions. These NCLEX practice questions include answers and detailed explanations. The NCLEX exam subjects include the treatment of cardiovascular health problems, respiratory, upper gastrointestinal, lower gastrointestinal, digestion including gallbladder, liver and pancreas, endocrine, musculoskeletal, maternal, mental health, renal, adolescent care, fundamentals, priorities of care, health promotion and maintenance, and safe and effective care.
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NCLEX Question 1: A patient with a history of heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix), a loop diuretic. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely while the patient is taking furosemide?
A. Serum potassium levels
B. Hemoglobin levels
C. Blood glucose levels
D. Serum sodium levels
Rationale: Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can cause potassium depletion. Therefore, monitoring serum potassium levels is essential to detect and prevent hypokalemia. Options B, C, and D are not the primary focus of monitoring when a patient is on furosemide.
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NCLEX Question 2: A 30-year-old pregnant patient is experiencing nausea and vomiting during the first trimester of pregnancy. The healthcare provider recommends a medication to manage her symptoms. Which medication is safe and commonly used for nausea during pregnancy?
A. Warfarin
B. Ondansetron
C. Atorvastatin
D. Lisinopril
Rationale: Ondansetron is commonly used to manage nausea and vomiting during pregnancy. It is considered safe when prescribed by a healthcare provider. Options A, C, and D are not safe choices during pregnancy and may pose risks to the developing fetus.
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NCLEX Question 3: A 45-year-old patient with a history of severe allergies is prescribed an epinephrine auto-injector for emergency use. The nurse is educating the patient on its proper administration. What should the nurse instruct the patient to do?
A. Inject it into the heart muscle
B. Inject it subcutaneously into the thigh
C. Swallow the medication
D. Rub it onto the skin
Rationale: An epinephrine auto-injector should be administered subcutaneously into the thigh during an anaphylactic reaction. It should not be injected into the heart muscle (A), swallowed (C), or rubbed onto the skin (D) as these routes are ineffective or dangerous in an emergency situation.
NCLEX Question 4: A 50-year-old patient with major depressive disorder is prescribed a medication that primarily enhances the effects of serotonin and norepinephrine by blocking their reuptake. This medication belongs to which class of drugs?
A. Anticonvulsants
B. Antipsychotics
C. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)
D. Mood stabilizers
Rationale: Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) primarily enhance the effects of serotonin and norepinephrine in the brain by blocking their reuptake. They are used in the treatment of major depressive disorder. Options A, B, and D represent different classes of drugs with different mechanisms of action.
NCLEX Question 5: A patient with a history of type 2 diabetes is taking metformin to manage blood glucose levels. The patient experiences a respiratory infection and is prescribed a course of antibiotics. What should the nurse advise the patient regarding the timing of metformin administration during the antibiotic therapy?
A. Take metformin immediately before taking the antibiotic.
B. Take metformin immediately after taking the antibiotic.
C. Continue taking metformin as usual.
D. Discontinue metformin until the antibiotic course is completed.
Rationale: Metformin or glucophage is commonly used in Type 2, diabetes. It is not typically affected by antibiotics, and it should be continued as prescribed. Options A and B may lead to potential interactions or digestive discomfort, and option D is not necessary unless specifically advised by a healthcare provider.
NCLEX Question 6: A patient is prescribed a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) for pain management. The nurse should instruct the patient to monitor for which potential adverse effect while taking the NSAID?
A. Hypertension
B. Bradycardia
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Gastrointestinal bleeding
Rationale: NSAIDs can increase the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding, so patients should be advised to monitor for signs such as black, tarry stools or abdominal pain. Options A, B, and C are not typically associated with NSAID use.
NCLEX Question 7: A patient is receiving heparin therapy for the treatment of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). The nurse should assess the patient for which potential side effect of heparin?
A. Elevated blood pressure
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Bleeding
D. Respiratory depression
Rationale: Heparin is an anticoagulant medication and can increase the risk of bleeding. Patients should be monitored for signs of bleeding, such as petechiae, ecchymosis, or blood in the urine or stool. Options A, B, and D are not common side effects of heparin.
NCLEX Question 8: A patient is prescribed a medication that has a narrow therapeutic index (NTI). What does a narrow therapeutic index indicate about this medication?
A. It has a wide safety margin.
B. It has a high likelihood of toxicity
C. It is ineffective for most patients.
D. It is used primarily for chronic conditions.
Rationale: A narrow therapeutic index means that there is a small difference between a therapeutic dose and a potentially toxic dose. This indicates a higher risk of toxicity, and patients must be closely monitored when taking medications with NTI. Options A, C, and D do not accurately describe the characteristics of NTI drugs.
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NCLEX Question 9: A patient is prescribed a statin medication for the management of high cholesterol levels. The nurse should advise the patient to report which potential adverse effect immediately?
A. Muscle pain or weakness
B. Dry mouth
C. Mild headache
D. Drowsiness
Rationale: Statin medications can sometimes lead to a rare but serious side effect called rhabdomyolysis, which can cause muscle pain or weakness. Patients should be instructed to report these symptoms immediately. Options B, C, and D are not typically associated with statin use.
NCLEX Question 10: A patient is prescribed a medication that requires therapeutic drug monitoring due to a narrow therapeutic range. What is the primary purpose of therapeutic drug monitoring for this medication?
A. To prevent drug addiction
B. To assess the patient’s liver function
C. To ensure the medication is affordable
D. To maintain drug efficacy and safety
Rationale: Therapeutic drug monitoring for medications with a narrow therapeutic range is primarily done to ensure that the drug remains within the therapeutic range, optimizing its effectiveness while minimizing the risk of toxicity. Options A, B, and C are not the primary goals of therapeutic drug monitoring.
NCLEX Question 11: A patient with a known allergy to penicillin has developed a severe infection requiring antibiotic therapy. The healthcare provider prescribes an alternative antibiotic. What should the nurse prioritize when administering the alternative antibiotic?
A. Confirming the patient’s allergy to penicillin
B. Administering the alternative antibiotic without further assessment
C. Checking the patient’s blood glucose levels
D. Monitoring the patient’s respiratory rate
Rationale: Before administering any medication, especially antibiotics, it’s crucial to confirm the patient’s allergies to prevent an allergic reaction. Options B, C, and D do not address this important safety concern.
NCLEX Question 12: A 38-year-old patient with schizophrenia is prescribed a medication that primarily works by blocking dopamine receptors and also has some affinity for serotonin receptors. This medication belongs to which class of drugs?
A. Antidepressants
B. Anxiolytics
C. Second-generation antipsychotics
D. Mood stabilizers
Rationale: Second-generation antipsychotic medications primarily work by blocking both dopamine and serotonin receptors in the brain. They are commonly used in the treatment of schizophrenia and other psychotic disorders. Options A, B, and D represent different classes of drugs with different mechanisms of action.
NCLEX Question 13: A patient with a history of heart failure is prescribed digoxin, a cardiac glycoside. The nurse should assess the patient for which common signs of digoxin toxicity?
A. Hypertension
B. Hypokalemia
C. Bradycardia
D. Excessive thirst
Rationale: Bradycardia is a common sign of digoxin toxicity. It’s essential to monitor the patient’s heart rate closely while on digoxin therapy. Options A, B, and D are not typical signs of digoxin toxicity.
NCLEX Question 14: A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed a bronchodilator medication. The nurse should instruct the patient on the proper use of the inhaler. What should be emphasized?
A. To swallow the medication for better absorption
B. To rinse the mouth immediately after using the inhaler
C. To exhale forcefully into the inhaler
D. To inhale quickly and deeply through the mouthpiece
Rationale: Proper inhaler technique involves inhaling quickly and deeply through the mouthpiece to ensure the medication reaches the lungs effectively. Options A and C are incorrect instructions, and option B, while important, should be done after using the inhaler to prevent oral thrush.
NCLEX Question 15: A patient is receiving a continuous intravenous infusion of a medication with a narrow therapeutic range. The nurse should monitor which parameter most closely to ensure the patient’s safety?
A. Blood pressure
B. Urine output
C. Skin temperature
D. Respiratory rate
Rationale: Monitoring the patient’s blood pressure is crucial when administering medications with a narrow therapeutic range to prevent adverse effects and ensure safety. Options B, C, and D are important but not as directly related to the medication’s therapeutic range.
A. Antidepressants
B. Anxiolytics
C. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)
D. Anticonvulsants
Rationale: Some mood stabilizers used in the treatment of bipolar disorder, such as valproate and carbamazepine, primarily work by modulating sodium and calcium channels in neurons. They are classified as anticonvulsants. Options A, B, and C represent different classes of drugs with different mechanisms of action.
NCLEX Question 17: A patient is prescribed warfarin for the prevention of blood clots. The nurse should advise the patient to avoid which type of food while on this medication?
A. Leafy green vegetables
B. Citrus fruits
C. Dairy products
D. Red meat
Rationale: Leafy green vegetables are rich in vitamin K, which can interfere with warfarin’s anticoagulant effects. Patients on warfarin should maintain a consistent intake of vitamin K-containing foods. Options B, C, and D are not typically contraindicated.
NCLEX Question 18: A patient with a history of asthma is prescribed a long-acting beta-agonist (LABA) inhaler. What is the primary action of LABA medications?
A. Reducing airway inflammation
B. Relieving acute bronchospasm
C. Providing immediate symptom relief
D. Promoting bronchodilation over an extended period
Rationale: LABA medications work by promoting bronchodilation over an extended period, making them suitable for long-term asthma control. Options A, B, and C describe actions of other types of asthma medications.
NCLEX Question 19: A patient is prescribed a medication with a narrow therapeutic index (NTI). The nurse should prioritize which action related to this medication?
A. Administering the medication as ordered
B. Monitoring the patient’s blood pressure
C. Providing patient education on potential side effects
D. Ensuring proper storage of the medication
Rationale: With NTI medications, it is crucial to administer the medication precisely as ordered to maintain therapeutic efficacy and prevent adverse effects. While monitoring blood pressure (B), educating the patient (C), and ensuring proper storage (D) are important, the immediate priority is accurate administration.
NCLEX Question 20: A patient is prescribed a medication known to have a significant risk of teratogenic effects. What should the nurse prioritize when caring for this patient?
A. Encouraging the patient to become pregnant while taking the medication
B. Ensuring the patient is on birth control while taking the medication
C. Monitoring the patient for liver function changes
D. Monitoring the patient’s blood glucose levels
Rationale: When a medication has a significant risk of teratogenic effects (causing birth defects), it is essential to ensure that the patient is not pregnant and is using effective contraception during medication therapy. Options A, C, and D are not the primary concern in this situation.
NCLEX Question 21: A patient is prescribed a medication with a narrow therapeutic range. The nurse knows that frequent monitoring of which parameter is essential to ensure the medication’s safety and effectiveness?
A. Blood pressure
B. Heart rate
C. Serum potassium levels
D. Serum drug levels
Rationale: Medications with a narrow therapeutic range require careful monitoring of serum drug levels to ensure they remain within the therapeutic range. Options A and B may be monitored but are not specific to narrow therapeutic range drugs. Option C is essential but not as directly related to this particular issue.
NCLEX Question 22: A patient is prescribed a medication that requires frequent blood level monitoring due to its narrow therapeutic range. The nurse should educate the patient about the importance of:
A. Maintaining a low-sodium diet
B. Taking the medication with food
C. Adhering strictly to the prescribed dosing schedule
D. Monitoring blood pressure daily
Rationale: For medications with a narrow therapeutic range, consistent and precise dosing is crucial to maintaining therapeutic levels and avoiding toxicity. Options A, B, and D are important aspects of patient care but are not directly related to the specific needs of medications with narrow therapeutic ranges.
NCLEX Question 23: A patient receiving intravenous (IV) vancomycin experiences sudden difficulty breathing, chest pain, and flushing shortly after the infusion begins. What is the nurse’s initial action?
A. Administer an antihistamine
B. Slow down the IV infusion rate
C. Discontinue the IV infusion immediately
D. Apply a warm compress to the patient’s chest
Rationale: The symptoms described, including difficulty breathing, chest pain, and flushing, are indicative of an allergic reaction to vancomycin. The immediate action should be to stop the infusion to prevent further reaction. Options A, B, and D are not the initial priority.
NCLEX Question 24: A patient is prescribed a medication that has a known risk of photosensitivity. What should the nurse advise the patient to do while taking this medication?
A. Apply sunscreen before going outdoors
B. Avoid taking the medication with food
C. Skip doses if experiencing sunburn
D. Increase sun exposure to build tolerance
Rationale: Medications that can cause photosensitivity may increase the risk of sunburn. Patients should be advised to apply sunscreen before going outdoors to protect their skin. Options B, C, and D are not appropriate or safe responses to photosensitivity.
NCLEX Question 25: A patient is prescribed a medication known to cause gastrointestinal irritation. The nurse should instruct the patient to take the medication with:
A. A glass of alcohol
B. A glass of milk
C. A glass of orange juice
D. A glass of water
Rationale: Any medications that can cause gastrointestinal irritation should be taken with a full glass of water to help prevent irritation and promote proper absorption. Options A, B, and C are not appropriate choices for taking medications that may cause gastrointestinal discomfort.
NCLEX Question 26: A patient is receiving an intravenous infusion of a potassium supplement. The nurse should closely monitor which parameter to prevent potential complications?
A. Blood pressure
B. Urine output
C. Serum potassium levels
D. Respiratory rate
Rationale: Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial when administering potassium supplements intravenously to prevent hyperkalemia or other complications. Options A, B, and D are important but not as directly related to this particular issue.
NCLEX Question 27: A patient is prescribed a medication known to cause drowsiness. What is the most appropriate instruction for the nurse to give the patient regarding activities while taking the medication?
A. Engage in strenuous exercise daily
B. Drive only during daylight hours
C. Avoid operating heavy machinery
D. Consume caffeine regularly
Rationale: Medications that cause drowsiness can impair cognitive and motor functions, making it unsafe to operate heavy machinery. Options A, B, and D do not address the primary safety concern associated with drowsy medications.
NCLEX Question 28: A patient with a known penicillin allergy is prescribed a cephalosporin antibiotic. What should the nurse do first before administering the cephalosporin?
A. Administer an antihistamine
B. Verify the patient’s penicillin allergy
C. Notify the healthcare provider
D. Administer the cephalosporin as prescribed
Rationale: It is crucial to verify the patient’s penicillin allergy before administering a cephalosporin antibiotic, as cross-reactivity can occur. Options A, C, and D should follow the confirmation of the allergy.
NCLEX Question 29: A patient is prescribed a medication known to have a narrow therapeutic range. What should the nurse emphasize to the patient regarding the timing of medication administration?
A. Take the medication at any time of day
B. Take the medication with meals
C. Take the medication at the same time each day
D. Take the medication only as needed
Rationale: Medications with a narrow therapeutic range require consistent timing of administration to maintain therapeutic levels and minimize the risk of toxicity. Options A, B, and D do not address the importance of timing for these medications.
NCLEX Question 30: A patient is prescribed a subcutaneous injection of a medication. What should the nurse do to minimize the risk of infection at the injection site?
A. Use a smaller needle for the injection
B. Administer the injection quickly
C. Cleanse the site with an alcohol swab before injection
D. Apply an ice pack to the injection site after the injection
Rationale: Cleaning the injection site with an alcohol swab before the injection helps minimize the risk of infection. Options A, B, and D do not address infection prevention and are not appropriate actions.
NCLEX Question 31: A patient is prescribed a medication that is known to cause photosensitivity. What advice should the nurse provide to the patient regarding sun exposure?
A. Avoid going outdoors during daylight hours.
B. Apply sunscreen only to the face and hands.
C. Use a tanning bed to gradually build tolerance.
D. Apply broad-spectrum sunscreen and wear protective clothing.
Rationale: Patients taking medications that can cause photosensitivity should be advised to protect their skin from the sun by applying broad-spectrum sunscreen and wearing protective clothing, such as long sleeves and a hat. Options A, B, and C are not appropriate or safe strategies for sun protection.
NCLEX Question 32: A patient is prescribed a medication with a high risk of teratogenic effects. What is the most critical advice the nurse should provide to the patient?
A. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
B. Do not take any other medications concurrently.
C. Use effective contraception to prevent pregnancy.
D. Discontinue the medication if side effects occur.
Rationale: When a medication carries a high risk of teratogenic effects (causing birth defects), it is essential to advise the patient to use effective contraception to prevent pregnancy while on the medication. Options A, B, and D do not address this primary concern.
NCLEX Question 33: A patient receiving a blood transfusion experiences facial flushing, itching, and hives. What should the nurse do first?
A. Discontinue the blood transfusion.
B. Administer an antihistamine.
C. Slow down the transfusion rate.
D. Administer corticosteroids.
Rationale: The patient is experiencing symptoms of a transfusion reaction, likely an allergic reaction. The immediate action should be to stop the transfusion to prevent further reaction. Options B, C, and D may be appropriate but should follow the discontinuation of the transfusion.
NCLEX Question 34: A patient is prescribed a medication with a known risk of causing agranulocytosis. What assessment should the nurse prioritize when monitoring for this potential side effect?
A. Blood pressure
B. Liver function tests
C. White blood cell count
D. Urine output
Rationale: Agranulocytosis is characterized by a severe decrease in white blood cell count, which can lead to increased susceptibility to infections. Therefore, monitoring the patient’s white blood cell count is essential. Options A, B, and D are important but not as directly related to this particular side effect.
NCLEX Question 35: A patient is prescribed an anticoagulant medication. The nurse should educate the patient about the potential risk of which adverse effect?
A. Hypertension
B. Bleeding
C. Bradycardia
D. Hyperglycemia
Rationale: Anticoagulant medications increase the risk of bleeding, so patients should be educated about the signs and symptoms of bleeding and the importance of seeking medical attention if they occur. Options A, C, and D are not the primary concern associated with anticoagulant use.
NCLEX Question 36: A patient is prescribed an antipsychotic medication. The nurse should educate the patient about the potential risk of which adverse effect that could affect temperature regulation?
A. Hypothermia
B. Hyperthermia
C. Bradycardia
D. Hypertension
Rationale: Some antipsychotic medications can lead to a condition known as neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), which is characterized by hyperthermia (elevated body temperature) among other symptoms. Patients should be educated to recognize and report signs of hyperthermia. Options A, C, and D are not typically associated with antipsychotic medications.
NCLEX Question 37: A patient is prescribed an oral medication with food. What is the primary reason for taking the medication with food?
A. To improve the taste of the medication
B. To reduce the risk of gastrointestinal upset
C. To increase the absorption of the medication
D. To decrease the cost of the medication
Rationale: Taking medication with food can help reduce the risk of gastrointestinal upset, such as nausea or gastric irritation. While options A, C, and D may be factors in some cases, they are not the primary reason for taking the medication with food.
NCLEX Question 38: A 28-year-old patient with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is prescribed a medication that primarily works by enhancing the effects of serotonin and norepinephrine in the brain. This medication belongs to which class of drugs?
A.Anticonvulsants
B. Antidepressants
C. Second-generation antipsychotics
D. Mood stabilizers
Rationale: Antidepressants, specifically selective serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs), primarily work by enhancing the effects of serotonin and norepinephrine in the brain. They are commonly used in the treatment of anxiety disorders and depression. Options A, C, and D represent different classes of drugs with different mechanisms of action.
NCLEX Question 39: A patient with a history of epilepsy is prescribed a new antiepileptic medication. What should the nurse instruct the patient to do regarding missed doses of the medication?
A. Skip the missed dose and take the next scheduled dose.
B. Take the missed dose as soon as remembered, even if it means doubling up.
C. Discontinue the medication if more than one dose is missed.
D. Call the healthcare provider immediately after missing a dose.
Rationale: It is generally recommended to skip the missed dose and continue with the next scheduled dose when it comes to antiepileptic medications. Doubling up on doses (B) can increase the risk of adverse effects. Discontinuing the medication (C) without consulting a healthcare provider is not appropriate. Calling the healthcare provider (D) may be necessary if multiple doses are missed or if there are concerns about the medication’s efficacy.
NCLEX Question 40: A patient is prescribed a medication known to have a significant risk of ototoxicity. What assessment should the nurse prioritize when monitoring for this potential side effect?
A. Visual acuity
B. Hearing function
C. Blood pressure
D. Skin integrity
not as directly related to this particular side effect.
NCLEX Question 41: A patient is prescribed a medication that is known to cause significant dizziness. What advice should the nurse provide to the patient regarding falls and injury prevention?
A. Avoid taking the medication with water.
B. Rise quickly from a sitting to a standing position.
C. Use handrails and walk carefully to prevent falls.
D. Increase the dose of the medication if dizziness occurs.
Rationale: Medications that cause dizziness can increase the risk of falls and injury. Patients should be advised to use handrails and walk carefully to prevent accidents. Options A, B, and D are not appropriate or safe strategies for fall prevention.
NCLEX Question 42: A patient is prescribed an antibiotic with a known side effect of photosensitivity. What should the nurse educate the patient about regarding sun protection?
A. Apply sunscreen to exposed areas only.
B. Avoid using sunscreen while taking the antibiotic.
C. Stay in direct sunlight for short periods.
D. Apply sunscreen generously to all exposed skin.
Rationale: Patients taking medications that can cause photosensitivity should be advised to protect all exposed skin by generously applying sunscreen. Options A, B, and C do not provide adequate sun protection.
NCLEX Question 43: A patient is prescribed a medication known to cause hypokalemia. What assessment should the nurse prioritize when monitoring for this potential side effect?
A. Respiratory rate
B. Blood pressure
C. Serum potassium levels
D. Urine output
Rationale: Hypokalemia refers to low potassium levels in the blood. Therefore, monitoring the patient’s serum potassium levels is crucial when a medication with a risk of hypokalemia is prescribed. Options A, B, and D are important but not as directly related to this particular side effect.
NCLEX Question 44: A patient is prescribed a medication that requires subcutaneous injection. What should the nurse instruct the patient to do to minimize the risk of injection site pain and discomfort?
A. Massage the injection site vigorously after the injection.
B. Apply a cold pack to the injection site before the injection.
C. Use a smaller-gauge needle for the injection.
D. Warm the medication to body temperature before injection.
Rationale: Warming the medication to body temperature before injection can help minimize injection site pain and discomfort. Options A, B, and C are not appropriate or safe strategies for injection site comfort.
NCLEX Question 45: A patient with a history of a bleeding disorder is prescribed an anticoagulant medication. What is the nurse’s priority when monitoring for potential complications?
A. Monitoring blood pressure
B. Assessing joint pain and mobility
C. Checking for skin rash
D. Measuring urine output
Rationale: Patients with a history of bleeding disorders and those on anticoagulant medications are at risk of bleeding into joints, which can lead to joint pain and decreased mobility. Therefore, assessing joint function and monitoring for signs of bleeding is a priority. Options A, C, and D are also important but not as immediately critical as joint assessment in this context.
NCLEX Question 46: A patient is prescribed a diuretic medication. What is the nurse’s priority when monitoring the patient for potential side effects?
A. Assessing urine output
B. Monitoring blood pressure
C. Evaluating skin turgor
D. Checking serum potassium levels
Rationale: Diuretic medications can lead to hypokalemia (low potassium levels), so monitoring serum potassium levels is a priority. Options A, B, and C are important but not as directly related to the specific side effect of hypokalemia.
NCLEX Question 47: A patient is prescribed a medication known to have a significant risk of causing photosensitivity. What advice should the nurse provide to the patient regarding sun exposure?
A. Apply sunscreen only to the face and neck.
B. Avoid applying sunscreen on cloudy days.
C. Use a tanning bed to build tolerance.
D. Apply sunscreen to all exposed skin.
Rationale: Patients taking medications that can cause photosensitivity should protect all exposed skin by applying sunscreen. Options A, B, and C do not provide adequate sun protection and are not recommended.
NCLEX Question 48: A patient is prescribed a medication known to have a risk of causing hyperglycemia. What assessment should the nurse prioritize when monitoring for this potential side effect?
A. Blood pressure
B. Serum glucose levels
C. Liver function tests
D. Skin integrity
Rationale: Hyperglycemia refers to high blood glucose levels. Therefore, monitoring the patient’s serum glucose levels is crucial when a medication with a risk of hyperglycemia is prescribed. Options A, C, and D are important but not as directly related to this particular side effect.
NCLEX Question 49: A patient is prescribed a medication that may cause drowsiness. What instructions should the nurse give the patient regarding activities that require mental alertness?
A. Avoid activities that require mental alertness completely.
B. Engage in mentally challenging tasks to counteract sedation.
C. Perform activities that require mental alertness in the morning.
D. Consume caffeine before engaging in such activities.
Rationale: When taking a sedating medication, patients should schedule activities that require mental alertness for the time of day when they are least likely to experience sedation, which is often in the morning. Options A, B, and D may not be practical or safe strategies.
NCLEX Question 50: A patient is prescribed an antibiotic and develops severe diarrhea, abdominal cramps, and a high fever. What action should the nurse take first?
A. Administer an antidiarrheal medication.
B. Notify the healthcare provider.
C. Encourage increased fluid intake.
D. Perform a complete physical assessment.
Rationale: The patient’s symptoms, including severe diarrhea, abdominal cramps, and a high fever, may indicate a severe adverse reaction or infection related to the antibiotic. The healthcare provider should be notified immediately for further evaluation and guidance. Options A, C, and D are important but should follow notifying the provider.
NCLEX Question 51: A 65-year-old patient with a history of hypertension is prescribed an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. The nurse should monitor the patient for which common side effect of ACE inhibitors?
A. Hypertension
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Tachycardia
D. Bradypnea
Explanation: ACE inhibitors can lead to hyperkalemia (elevated potassium levels) as a side effect. Monitoring serum potassium levels is essential in patients taking ACE inhibitors to prevent complications. Options A, C, and D are not common side effects of ACE inhibitors.
NCLEX Question 52: A 55-year-old patient with a recent myocardial infarction is prescribed aspirin. The nurse understands that the primary purpose of aspirin in this patient is to:
A. Lower blood pressure
B. Prevent platelet aggregation
C. Reduce heart rate
D. Increase cardiac output
Explanation: Aspirin is often prescribed after a myocardial infarction to prevent platelet aggregation and reduce the risk of clot formation in the coronary arteries. Options A, C, and D are not the primary actions of aspirin in this context.
NCLEX Question 53: A 70-year-old patient with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. The nurse should educate the patient about the importance of:
A. Avoiding leafy green vegetables
B. Reducing fluid intake
C. Consistent vitamin K intake
D. Discontinuing the medication during illness
Explanation: Patients taking warfarin should maintain a consistent intake of vitamin K-containing foods to avoid fluctuations in the medication’s anticoagulant effects. Options A, B, and D do not provide appropriate guidance for patients on warfarin.
NCLEX Question 54: A 45-year-old patient with stable angina is prescribed nitroglycerin sublingual tablets for acute chest pain. What should the nurse instruct the patient to do if the chest pain persists after the first dose?
A. Take another nitroglycerin tablet immediately
B. Wait 15 minutes and take a second tablet if needed
C. Take an aspirin tablet instead
D. Do nothing and wait for the pain to subside
Explanation: If chest pain persists after the first dose of nitroglycerin, the patient should wait for 15 minutes and, if necessary, take a second tablet. If the pain is not relieved after two tablets, the patient should seek emergency medical attention. Options A, C, and D are not recommended actions.
NCLEX Question 55: A patient with heart failure is prescribed a loop diuretic (e.g., furosemide). The nurse should monitor the patient for which potential adverse effect?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypotension
C. Hyperglycemia
D. Bradycardia
Explanation: Loop diuretics can lead to hypotension (low blood pressure) due to the loss of fluid and electrolytes. Monitoring blood pressure is essential in patients taking loop diuretics. Options A, C, and D are not common adverse effects of these medications.
NCLEX Question 56: A patient with a history of atherosclerosis is prescribed a statin medication (e.g., atorvastatin). The nurse should educate the patient about the primary purpose of statins, which is to:
A. Lower blood pressure
B. Increase insulin production
C. Reduce blood glucose levels
D. Lower cholesterol levels
Explanation: Statins are primarily used to lower cholesterol levels in patients with atherosclerosis. Options A, B, and C describe actions of other medications used for different purposes.
NCLEX Question 57: A patient with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed a direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC). What should the nurse teach the patient about DOACs?
A. Regularly monitor INR levels
B. Avoid all vitamin K-containing foods
C. Take the medication with an antacid
D. Report unusual bleeding or bruising
Explanation: Patients taking DOACs should be educated about the importance of reporting unusual bleeding or bruising, as these medications can increase the risk of bleeding. Options A, B, and C do not apply to DOACs.
NCLEX Question 58: A patient with hypertension is prescribed a calcium channel blocker (CCB) medication (e.g., amlodipine). The nurse should monitor the patient for which potential side effect?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Bradycardia
C. Hyperglycemia
D. Peripheral edema
Explanation: Calcium channel blockers, like amlodipine, can lead to peripheral edema (swelling of the extremities) as a side effect. Monitoring for this potential side effect is essential. Options A, B, and C are not common side effects of CCBs.
NCLEX Question 59: A patient with a history of heart failure is prescribed an angiotensin receptor blocker (ARB) medication (e.g., losartan). The nurse should monitor the patient for which potential effect of ARBs?
A. Bradycardia
B. Increased heart rate
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Hypotension
Explanation: ARB medications like losartan can lead to hyperkalemia (elevated potassium levels) as a side effect. Monitoring serum potassium levels is essential in patients taking ARBs. Options A, B, and D are not common side effects of ARBs.
NCLEX Question 60: A patient with a history of myocardial infarction is prescribed a beta-blocker medication (e.g., metoprolol). The nurse should educate the patient about the potential effects of beta-blockers, including:
A. Increased heart rate
B. Decreased blood pressure
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Vasodilation
Explanation:. Beta-blockers like metoprolol can lead to decreased blood pressure as one of their effects. This action helps reduce the workload of the heart. Options A, C, and D are not typical effects of beta-blockers.
NCLEX Question 61: A patient with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed an anticoagulant medication (e.g., enoxaparin). The nurse should educate the patient about the importance of monitoring for which potential adverse effect?
A. Hypertension
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Bleeding
D. Bradycardia
Explanation: TAnticoagulant medications like enoxaparin can increase the risk of bleeding. Patients should be educated about the signs and symptoms of bleeding and the importance of reporting them promptly. Options A, B, and D are not common adverse effects of anticoagulants.
NCLEX Question 62: A patient with angina is prescribed a medication known as a nitrate (e.g., nitroglycerin). The nurse should instruct the patient on the proper administration of nitroglycerin, which includes:
A. Swallowing the tablet whole
B. Chewing the tablet for faster relief
C. Applying the patch directly to the chest
D. Taking the medication with grapefruit juice
Explanation: Nitroglycerin tablets should be chewed for faster relief when chest pain occurs. Options A, C, and D are not appropriate methods of administering nitroglycerin.
NCLEX Question 63: A patient with hypertension is prescribed a medication that belongs to the class of angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs). The nurse should educate the patient about the potential benefits of ARBs, including:
A. Increased heart rate
B. Vasodilation
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Reduced blood pressure
Explanation: ARB medications help reduce blood pressure by blocking the effects of angiotensin II. Options A, B, and C are not typical benefits of ARBs.
NCLEX Question 64: A patient with atrial fibrillation is prescribed an anticoagulant medication (e.g., warfarin). The nurse should emphasize the importance of regular monitoring of which laboratory test?
A. Blood glucose levels
B. Serum sodium levels
C. International normalized ratio (INR)
D. Hemoglobin levels
Explanation: Patients taking warfarin should have their INR regularly monitored to ensure the medication’s anticoagulant effect is within the therapeutic range and to prevent bleeding or clotting complications. Options A, B, and D are not the primary laboratory tests for monitoring warfarin.
NCLEX Question 65: A patient with heart failure is prescribed a medication known as a thiazide diuretic (e.g., hydrochlorothiazide). The nurse should monitor the patient for which potential side effect?
A. Hypertension
B. Hypoglycemia
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Hypokalemia
Explanation: Thiazide diuretics like hydrochlorothiazide can lead to hypokalemia (low potassium levels) as a side effect. Monitoring serum potassium levels is important in patients taking these medications. Options A, B, and C are not common side effects of thiazide diuretics.
NCLEX Question 66: A patient with a history of heart attack is prescribed a medication known as an antiplatelet agent (e.g., clopidogrel). The nurse should educate the patient about the primary purpose of antiplatelet agents, which is to:
A. Reduce cholesterol levels
B. Prevent platelet aggregation
C. Increase blood pressure
D. Lower blood glucose levels
Explanation: Antiplatelet agents like clopidogrel are primarily used to prevent platelet aggregation and reduce the risk of clot formation in blood vessels. Options A, C, and D describe actions of other medications used for different purposes.
NCLEX Question 67: A patient with hypertension is prescribed a medication known as an alpha-adrenergic blocker (e.g., doxazosin). The nurse should monitor the patient for which potential side effect?
A. Bradycardia
B. Hypotension
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Hyperglycemia
Explanation: Alpha-adrenergic blockers like doxazosin can lead to hypotension (low blood pressure) as a side effect. Monitoring blood pressure is essential in patients taking these medications. Options A, C, and D are not common side effects of alpha-adrenergic blockers.
NCLEX Question 68: A patient with a history of congestive heart failure is prescribed a medication known as a beta-adrenergic agonist (e.g., dobutamine). The nurse should educate the patient about the medication’s primary action, which is to:
A. Slow down the heart rate
B. Increase blood pressure
C. Stimulate the release of insulin
D. Improve cardiac contractility
Explanation: Beta-adrenergic agonists like dobutamine stimulate beta receptors in the heart, leading to improved cardiac contractility. This action helps the heart pump more effectively in patients with heart failure. Options A, B, and C are not the primary actions of beta-adrenergic agonists.
NCLEX Question 69: A patient with a history of hyperlipidemia is prescribed a medication known as a bile acid sequestrant (e.g., cholestyramine). The nurse should educate the patient about the potential side effect of this medication, which is:
A. Diarrhea
B. Hypertension
C. Hypokalemia
D. Bradycardia
Explanation: Bile acid sequestrants like cholestyramine can lead to diarrhea as a common side effect. Patients should be educated about this potential adverse effect. Options B, C, and D are not common side effects of bile acid sequestrants.
NCLEX Question 70: A patient with hypertension is prescribed a medication known as a centrally acting alpha-2 agonist (e.g., clonidine). The nurse should monitor the patient for which potential side effect?
A. Bradycardia
B. Hypotension
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Hyperglycemia
Explanation: Centrally acting alpha-2 agonists like clonidine can lead to hypotension (low blood pressure) as a side effect. Monitoring blood pressure is essential in patients taking these medications. Options A, C, and D are not common side effects of centrally acting alpha-2 agonists.
NCLEX Question 71: A 45-year-old patient with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed a short-acting beta2-agonist (SABA) inhaler (e.g., albuterol). The nurse should instruct the patient that the primary action of SABAs is to:
A. Thin and loosen respiratory secretions
B. Reduce airway inflammation
C. Dilate bronchial smooth muscles
D. Provide immediate relief from bronchospasm
Rationale: Short-acting beta2-agonists (SABAs) like albuterol provide immediate relief from bronchospasm by rapidly dilating bronchial smooth muscles. They do not directly reduce airway inflammation (option B) or thin and loosen respiratory secretions (option A). While they offer quick relief, they do not provide long-term control of COPD symptoms.
NCLEX Question 72: A 60-year-old patient with asthma is prescribed an inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) and a long-acting beta2-agonist (LABA) combination inhaler (e.g., fluticasone/salmeterol). The nurse should educate the patient that the primary action of this combination medication is to:
A. Thin and loosen respiratory secretions
B. Reduce airway inflammation
C. Dilate bronchial smooth muscles
D. Provide immediate relief from bronchospasm
Rationale: Combination inhalers containing an ICS and a LABA are used to reduce airway inflammation and provide long-term control of asthma symptoms. They do not directly thin and loosen respiratory secretions (option A), provide immediate relief from bronchospasm (option D), or solely dilate bronchial smooth muscles (option C).
NCLEX Question 73: A 55-year-old patient with chronic rhinitis is prescribed an intranasal corticosteroid (e.g., fluticasone) for symptom management. The nurse should explain that the primary action of intranasal corticosteroids is to:
A. Reduce inflammation and allergic reactions in the nasal passages
B. Thin and loosen nasal secretions
C. Provide immediate relief from nasal congestion
D. Promote nasal bleeding
Rationale: Intranasal corticosteroids like fluticasone primarily reduce inflammation and allergic reactions in the nasal passages. They do not thin and loosen nasal secretions (option B), provide immediate relief from nasal congestion (option C), or promote nasal bleeding (option D).
NCLEX Question 74: A 40-year-old patient with a persistent cough and thick mucus production is prescribed a mucolytic medication (e.g., guaifenesin). The nurse should educate the patient that the primary action of mucolytics is to:
A. Thin and loosen respiratory secretions
B. Dilate bronchial smooth muscles
C. Provide immediate relief from bronchospasm
D. Reduce airway inflammation
Rationale: Mucolytics like guaifenesin help thin and loosen respiratory secretions, making it easier for the patient to cough up mucus. They do not dilate bronchial smooth muscles (option B), provide immediate relief from bronchospasm (option C), or reduce airway inflammation (option D).
NCLEX Question 75: A 35-year-old patient with a history of allergic rhinitis is prescribed an antihistamine medication (e.g., loratadine). The nurse should inform the patient that the primary action of antihistamines is to:
A. Thin and loosen nasal secretions
B. Reduce inflammation in the nasal passages
C. Block the effects of histamine
D. Provide immediate relief from nasal congestion
Rationale: Antihistamines work by blocking the effects of histamine, which is responsible for allergy symptoms. They do not directly thin and loosen nasal secretions (option A), reduce inflammation in the nasal passages (option B), or provide immediate relief from nasal congestion (option D).
NCLEX Question 76: A 50-year-old patient with a productive cough due to a respiratory infection is prescribed an expectorant medication (e.g., guaifenesin). The nurse should explain that the primary action of expectorants is to:
A. Dilate bronchial smooth muscles
B. Reduce airway inflammation
C. Thin and loosen respiratory secretions
D. Provide immediate relief from bronchospasm
Rationale: Expectorants like guaifenesin help thin and loosen respiratory secretions, making it easier for the patient to cough up mucus. They do not dilate bronchial smooth muscles (option A), reduce airway inflammation (option B), or provide immediate relief from bronchospasm (option D).
NCLEX Question 77: A 30-year-old patient with asthma is prescribed a leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) (e.g., montelukast). The nurse should educate the patient that the primary action of LTAs is to:
A. Provide immediate relief from bronchospasm
B. Reduce airway inflammation
C. Block leukotriene receptors
D. Thin and loosen respiratory secretions
Rationale: Leukotriene receptor antagonists (LTRAs) like montelukast block leukotriene receptors, which are involved in the inflammatory response in asthma. They do not provide immediate relief from bronchospasm (option A), reduce airway inflammation (option B), or thin and loosen respiratory secretions (option D).
NCLEX Question 78: A 45-year-old patient with allergic rhinitis is prescribed a decongestant medication (e.g., pseudoephedrine) for nasal congestion. The nurse should inform the patient that the primary action of decongestants is to:
A. Thin and loosen nasal secretions
B. Reduce inflammation in the nasal passages
C. Provide immediate relief from nasal congestion
D. Block histamine receptors
Rationale: Decongestants like pseudoephedrine provide immediate relief from nasal congestion by constricting blood vessels in the nasal passages. They do not directly thin and loosen nasal secretions (option A), reduce inflammation in the nasal passages (option B), or block histamine receptors (option D).
NCLEX Question 79: A 55-year-old patient with asthma is prescribed an anticholinergic inhaler (e.g., ipratropium). The nurse should explain that the primary action of anticholinergics is to:
A. Thin and loosen respiratory secretions
B. Dilate bronchial smooth muscles
C. Reduce airway inflammation
D. Block the effects of histamine
Rationale: Anticholinergic inhalers like ipratropium dilate bronchial smooth muscles, leading to improved airflow in patients with asthma or COPD. They do not directly thin and loosen respiratory secretions (option A), reduce airway inflammation (option C), or block the effects of histamine (option D).
NCLEX Question 80: A 65-year-old patient with a history of asthma is prescribed an inhaled mast cell stabilizer (e.g., cromolyn). The nurse should explain that the primary action of mast cell stabilizers is to:
A. Dilate bronchial smooth muscles
B. Reduce airway inflammation
C. Block the effects of histamine
D. Prevent mast cells from releasing inflammatory mediators
Rationale: Mast cell stabilizers like cromolyn work by preventing mast cells from releasing inflammatory mediators, thereby reducing airway inflammation and preventing asthma attacks. They do not directly dilate bronchial smooth muscles (option A), block the effects of histamine (option C), or have a primary role in providing immediate relief from bronchospasm.
NCLEX Question 81: A 50-year-old patient with a persistent cough and mucus production is prescribed a combination medication containing an expectorant and a cough suppressant (e.g., guaifenesin/dextromethorphan). The nurse should explain that the primary action of this combination medication is to:
A. Thin and loosen respiratory secretions
B. Suppress the cough reflex in the brainstem
C. Provide immediate relief from bronchospasm
D. Reduce airway inflammation
Rationale: Combination medications containing an expectorant and a cough suppressant are designed to thin and loosen respiratory secretions (option A) while also suppressing the cough reflex in the brainstem (option B). They are not intended to provide immediate relief from bronchospasm (option C) or reduce airway inflammation (option D).
NCLEX Question 82: A 35-year-old patient with chronic rhinitis is prescribed an antihistamine nasal spray (e.g., azelastine). The nurse should inform the patient that the primary action of antihistamine nasal sprays is to:
A. Thin and loosen nasal secretions
B. Reduce inflammation in the nasal passages
C. Block histamine receptors in the nasal mucosa
D. Provide immediate relief from nasal congestion
Rationale: Antihistamine nasal sprays like azelastine work by blocking histamine receptors in the nasal mucosa, reducing allergy symptoms. They do not directly thin and loosen nasal secretions (option A), reduce inflammation in the nasal passages (option B), or provide immediate relief from nasal congestion (option D).
NCLEX Question 83: A 45-year-old patient with allergic rhinitis is prescribed an intranasal corticosteroid (e.g., fluticasone) and an oral antihistamine (e.g., cetirizine). The nurse should explain that the primary action of intranasal corticosteroids is to:
A. Thin and loosen nasal secretions
B. Provide immediate relief from nasal congestion
C. Reduce inflammation in the nasal passages
D. Block histamine receptors
Rationale: Intranasal corticosteroids like fluticasone primarily reduce inflammation in the nasal passages. They do not directly thin and loosen nasal secretions (option A), provide immediate relief from nasal congestion (option B), or block histamine receptors (option D). The oral antihistamine (cetirizine) helps block histamine receptors systemically.
NCLEX Question 84: A 60-year-old patient with a history of asthma is prescribed an inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) as part of their long-term asthma management. The nurse should educate the patient that the primary action of ICS is to:
A. Provide immediate relief from bronchospasm
B. Thin and loosen respiratory secretions
C. Reduce airway inflammation
D. Dilate bronchial smooth muscles
Rationale: Inhaled corticosteroids (ICS) primarily work by reducing airway inflammation in patients with asthma. They are not intended for immediate relief from bronchospasm (option A), thinning and loosening respiratory secretions (option B), or dilating bronchial smooth muscles (option D). ICS are part of long-term asthma management to prevent exacerbations.
NCLEX Question 85: A 55-year-old patient with COPD is prescribed a long-acting anticholinergic inhaler (e.g., tiotropium). The nurse should explain that the primary action of long-acting anticholinergics is to:
A. Thin and loosen respiratory secretions
B. Provide immediate relief from bronchospasm
C. Reduce airway inflammation
D. Dilate bronchial smooth muscles
Rationale: Long-acting anticholinergics like tiotropium primarily work by dilating bronchial smooth muscles, leading to improved airflow in patients with COPD. They do not directly thin and loosen respiratory secretions (option A), provide immediate relief from bronchospasm (option B), or reduce airway inflammation (option C).
NCLEX Question 86: A 65-year-old patient with a history of asthma is prescribed a leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) (e.g., montelukast). The nurse should educate the patient that the primary action of LTRAs is to:
A. Thin and loosen respiratory secretions
B. Reduce airway inflammation
C. Block leukotriene receptors
D. Provide immediate relief from bronchospasm
Rationale: Leukotriene receptor antagonists (LTRAs) like montelukast block leukotriene receptors, which are involved in the inflammatory response in asthma. They do not directly thin and loosen respiratory secretions (option A), reduce airway inflammation (option B), or provide immediate relief from bronchospasm (option D).
NCLEX Question 87: A 50-year-old patient with a history of allergic rhinitis is prescribed a decongestant nasal spray (e.g., oxymetazoline) for nasal congestion. The nurse should inform the patient that the primary action of decongestant nasal sprays is to:
A. Thin and loosen nasal secretions
B. Reduce inflammation in the nasal passages
C. Block histamine receptors in the nasal mucosa
D. Provide immediate relief from nasal congestion
Rationale: Decongestant nasal sprays like oxymetazoline provide immediate relief from nasal congestion by constricting blood vessels in the nasal passages. They do not directly thin and loosen nasal secretions (option A), reduce inflammation in the nasal passages (option B), or block histamine receptors (option C).
NCLEX Question 88: A 35-year-old patient with chronic rhinitis is prescribed an intranasal corticosteroid (e.g., fluticasone) and an antihistamine nasal spray (e.g., azelastine). The nurse should explain that the primary action of intranasal corticosteroids is to:
A. Thin and loosen nasal secretions
B. Provide immediate relief from nasal congestion
C. Reduce inflammation in the nasal passages
D. Block histamine receptors in the nasal mucosa
Rationale: Intranasal corticosteroids like fluticasone primarily reduce inflammation in the nasal passages. They do not directly thin and loosen nasal secretions (option A), provide immediate relief from nasal congestion (option B), or block histamine receptors (option D). The antihistamine nasal spray (azelastine) helps block histamine receptors in the nasal mucosa.
NCLEX Question 89: A 45-year-old patient with asthma is prescribed an anticholinergic inhaler (e.g., ipratropium). The nurse should explain that the primary action of anticholinergics is to:
A. Thin and loosen respiratory secretions
B. Dilate bronchial smooth muscles
C. Reduce airway inflammation
D. Block histamine receptors in the airways
Rationale: Anticholinergic inhalers like ipratropium primarily work by dilating bronchial smooth muscles, leading to improved airflow in patients with asthma or COPD. They do not directly thin and loosen respiratory secretions (option A), reduce airway inflammation (option C), or block histamine receptors in the airways (option D).
NCLEX Question 90: A 55-year-old patient with COPD is prescribed a long-acting beta2-agonist (LABA) inhaler (e.g., salmeterol). The nurse should explain that the primary action of LABAs is to:
A. Thin and loosen respiratory secretions
B. Provide immediate relief from bronchospasm
C. Reduce airway inflammation
D. Dilate bronchial smooth muscles
Rationale: Long-acting beta2-agonists (LABAs) like salmeterol dilate bronchial smooth muscles, leading to improved airflow in patients with asthma or COPD. They do not directly thin and loosen respiratory secretions (option A), provide immediate relief from bronchospasm (option B), or reduce airway inflammation (option C).
Rationale: SGLT2 inhibitors like dapagliflozin can lead to hyperkalemia (high blood potassium levels) as a potential complication. They are not associated with hypertension (option A), weight gain (option C), or gastrointestinal bleeding (option D).
NCLEX Question 106: A 60-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes is prescribed a sulfonylurea medication (e.g., glyburide). The nurse should educate the patient that one of the common side effects of sulfonylureas is:
A. Weight loss
B. Hypoglycemia
C. Gastrointestinal upset
D. Bradycardia
Rationale: Hypoglycemia (low blood glucose levels) is a common side effect of sulfonylureas like glyburide, especially if the dose is too high or the patient does not eat as expected. They are not associated with weight loss (option A), gastrointestinal upset (option C), or bradycardia (option D).
NCLEX Question 107: A 35-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes is prescribed a thiazolidinedione (TZD) medication (e.g., rosiglitazone). The nurse should educate the patient that one of the potential complications of TZDs is:
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Peripheral edema
C. Gastrointestinal bleeding
D. Weight loss
Rationale: Peripheral edema (swelling of the extremities) is a potential complication of thiazolidinediones (TZDs) like rosiglitazone. They are not typically associated with hypoglycemia (option A), gastrointestinal bleeding (option C), or weight loss (option D).
NCLEX Question 108: A 65-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes is prescribed an alpha-glucosidase inhibitor (e.g., acarbose). The nurse should educate the patient that one of the common side effects of alpha-glucosidase inhibitors is:
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Gastrointestinal upset
D. Bradycardia
Rationale: Gastrointestinal upset, including flatulence, diarrhea, and abdominal discomfort, is a common side effect of alpha-glucosidase inhibitors like acarbose. They are not typically associated with hypoglycemia (option A), hyperkalemia (option B), or bradycardia (option D).
NCLEX Question 109: A 50-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes is prescribed an amylin analog medication (e.g., pramlintide). The nurse should educate the patient that one of the potential complications of amylin analogs is:
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Peripheral edema
C. Gastrointestinal upset
D. Weight gain
Rationale: Hypoglycemia (low blood glucose levels) is a potential complication of amylin analogs like pramlintide, especially if the dose is too high or if the patient does not adjust their insulin dose appropriately. They are not typically associated with peripheral edema (option B), gastrointestinal upset (option C), or weight gain (option D).
NCLEX Question 110: A 55-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes is prescribed a dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitor (e.g., saxagliptin). The nurse should educate the patient that one of the potential complications of DPP-4 inhibitors is:
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Gastrointestinal bleeding
D. Weight loss
Rationale: Hypoglycemia (low blood glucose levels) is a potential complication of DPP-4 inhibitors like saxagliptin, especially if used in combination with other medications that can lower blood glucose. They are not typically associated with hyperkalemia (option B), gastrointestinal bleeding (option C), or weight loss (option D).
NCLEX Question 111: A 45-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes is prescribed a sodium-glucose cotransporter 2 (SGLT2) inhibitor (e.g., empagliflozin). The nurse should educate the patient that one of the potential complications of SGLT2 inhibitors is:
A. Hypertension
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Gastrointestinal upset
D. Yeast infections
Rationale: Yeast infections are a potential complication of SGLT2 inhibitors like empagliflozin due to increased glucose excretion in the urine, creating an environment conducive to yeast growth. They are not typically associated with hypertension (option A), hyperkalemia (option B), or gastrointestinal upset (option C).
NCLEX Question 112: A 40-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes is prescribed a glucagon-like peptide-1 receptor agonist (GLP-1 RA) (e.g., dulaglutide). The nurse should educate the patient that one of the potential complications of GLP-1 RAs is:
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Gastrointestinal upset
D. Weight gain
Rationale: Gastrointestinal upset, including nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea, is a potential complication of GLP-1 receptor agonists like dulaglutide. They are not typically associated with hypoglycemia (option A), hyperkalemia (option B), or weight gain (option D).
NCLEX Question 113: A 55-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes is prescribed a bile acid sequestrant medication (e.g., cholestyramine). The nurse should educate the patient that one of the potential complications of bile acid sequestrants is:
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Peripheral edema
C. Gastrointestinal upset
D. Bradycardia
Rationale: Gastrointestinal upset, including constipation and bloating, is a potential complication of bile acid sequestrants like cholestyramine. They are not typically associated with hypoglycemia (option A), peripheral edema (option B), or bradycardia (option D).
NCLEX Question 114: A 65-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes is prescribed a meglitinide medication (e.g., nateglinide). The nurse should educate the patient that one of the potential complications of meglitinides is:
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Gastrointestinal bleeding
D. Weight loss
Rationale: Hypoglycemia (low blood glucose levels) is a potential complication of meglitinides like nateglinide, especially if the dose is too high or if the patient does not eat as expected. They are not typically associated with hyperkalemia (option B), gastrointestinal bleeding (option C), or weight loss (option D).
NCLEX Question 115: A 50-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes is prescribed an alpha-glucosidase inhibitor (e.g., miglitol). The nurse should educate the patient that one of the potential complications of alpha-glucosidase inhibitors is:
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Peripheral edema
C. Gastrointestinal upset
D. Bradycardia
Rationale: Gastrointestinal upset, including flatulence, diarrhea, and abdominal discomfort, is a potential complication of alpha-glucosidase inhibitors like miglitol. They are not typically associated with hypoglycemia (option A), peripheral edema (option B), or bradycardia (option D).
NCLEX Question 116: A 55-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes is prescribed a dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitor (e.g., linagliptin). The nurse should educate the patient that one of the potential complications of DPP-4 inhibitors is:
Multiple Choice Answers: A. Hypoglycemia B. Hyperkalemia C. Gastrointestinal bleeding D. Weight loss
Rationale: Hypoglycemia (low blood glucose levels) is a potential complication of DPP-4 inhibitors like linagliptin, especially if used in combination with other medications that can lower blood glucose. They are not typically associated with hyperkalemia (option B), gastrointestinal bleeding (option C), or weight loss (option D).
NCLEX Question 117: A 45-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes is prescribed a sodium-glucose cotransporter 2 (SGLT2) inhibitor (e.g., canagliflozin). The nurse should educate the patient that one of the potential complications of SGLT2 inhibitors is:
Multiple Choice Answers: A. Hypertension B. Hyperkalemia C. Gastrointestinal upset D. Bone fractures
Rationale: Bone fractures are a potential complication of SGLT2 inhibitors like canagliflozin. They are not typically associated with hypertension (option A), hyperkalemia (option B), or gastrointestinal upset (option C).
NCLEX Question 118: A 40-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes is prescribed a glucagon-like peptide-1 receptor agonist (GLP-1 RA) (e.g., semaglutide). The nurse should educate the patient that one of the potential complications of GLP-1 RAs is:
Multiple Choice Answers: A. Hypoglycemia B. Hyperkalemia C. Gastrointestinal upset D. Weight gain
Rationale: Gastrointestinal upset, including nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea, is a potential complication of GLP-1 receptor agonists like semaglutide. They are not typically associated with hypoglycemia (option A), hyperkalemia (option B), or weight gain (option D).
NCLEX Question 119: A 55-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes is prescribed a bile acid sequestrant medication (e.g., colestipol). The nurse should educate the patient that one of the potential complications of bile acid sequestrants is:
Multiple Choice Answers: A. Hypoglycemia B. Peripheral edema C. Gastrointestinal upset D. Bradycardia
Rationale: Gastrointestinal upset, including constipation and bloating, is a potential complication of bile acid sequestrants like colestipol. They are not typically associated with hypoglycemia (option A), peripheral edema (option B), or bradycardia (option D).
NCLEX Question 120: A 65-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes is prescribed a meglitinide medication (e.g., repaglinide). The nurse should educate the patient that one of the potential complications of meglitinides is:
Multiple Choice Answers: A. Hypoglycemia B. Hyperkalemia C. Gastrointestinal bleeding D. Weight loss
Rationale: Hypoglycemia (low blood glucose levels) is a potential complication of meglitinides like repaglinide, especially if the dose is too high or if the patient does not eat as expected. They are not typically associated with hyperkalemia (option B), gastrointestinal bleeding (option C), or weight loss (option D).
NCLEX Question 121: A 55-year-old patient with a history of peptic ulcer disease presents with epigastric pain and discomfort. The healthcare provider prescribes a medication that reduces gastric acid secretion by inhibiting the proton pump in parietal cells. Which medication has been prescribed for this patient?
Multiple Choice Answers: A. Sucralfate B. Ranitidine C. Omeprazole D. Metoclopramide
Rationale: Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) that reduces gastric acid secretion by inhibiting the proton pump in parietal cells. It is commonly used to treat peptic ulcer disease and gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). Sucralfate (option A) is a cytoprotective agent, ranitidine (option B) is an H2 receptor antagonist, and metoclopramide (option D) is a prokinetic agent, all of which have different mechanisms of action.
NCLEX Question 122: A 45-year-old patient with a history of chronic constipation has been prescribed a medication that increases water content in the stool, making it softer and easier to pass. Which medication is most likely prescribed for this patient?
Multiple Choice Answers: A. Psyllium B. Bisacodyl C. Loperamide D. Ondansetron
Rationale: Psyllium is a bulk-forming laxative that increases water content in the stool, making it softer and easier to pass. It is commonly used to relieve constipation. Bisacodyl (option B) is a stimulant laxative, loperamide (option C) is an antidiarrheal medication, and ondansetron (option D) is an antiemetic, all of which have different uses and mechanisms of action.
NCLEX Question 123: A 45-year-old patient with bipolar disorder is prescribed a medication that primarily works by reducing the release of norepinephrine and serotonin in the brain. This medication belongs to which class of drugs?
Multiple Choice Answers: A. Antidepressants B. Anxiolytics C. Second-generation antipsychotics D. Mood stabilizers
Rationale: Some mood stabilizers used in the treatment of bipolar disorder, such as lithium, primarily work by reducing the release of norepinephrine and serotonin in the brain. Options A, B, and C represent different classes of drugs with different mechanisms of action.
NCLEX Question 124: A 50-year-old patient with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is prescribed a medication that works by blocking histamine-2 receptors on parietal cells, reducing gastric acid secretion. Which medication has been prescribed for this patient?
Multiple Choice Answers: A. Sucralfate B. Ranitidine C. Omeprazole D. Metoclopramide
Rationale: Ranitidine is an H2 receptor antagonist that works by blocking histamine-2 receptors on parietal cells, reducing gastric acid secretion. It is commonly used to treat GERD and peptic ulcer disease. Sucralfate (option A) is a cytoprotective agent, omeprazole (option C) is a proton pump inhibitor (PPI), and metoclopramide (option D) is a prokinetic agent, all of which have different mechanisms of action.
NCLEX Question 125: A 35-year-old patient with a history of chronic diarrhea has been prescribed a medication that works by inhibiting the absorption of bile acids in the intestines, which can contribute to diarrhea. Which medication has been prescribed for this patient?
Multiple Choice Answers: A. Psyllium B. Bisacodyl C. Cholestyramine D. Ondansetron
Rationale: Cholestyramine is a bile acid sequestrant that works by binding to bile acids in the intestines, inhibiting their absorption and reducing diarrhea. It is commonly used in the management of chronic diarrhea, particularly when bile acid malabsorption is a contributing factor. Psyllium (option A) is a bulk-forming laxative, bisacodyl (option B) is a stimulant laxative, and ondansetron (option D) is an antiemetic, all of which have different uses and mechanisms of action.
NCLEX Question 126: A 65-year-old patient with a history of chronic constipation has been prescribed a medication that stimulates peristalsis in the colon, promoting bowel movements. Which medication has been prescribed for this patient?
Multiple Choice Answers: A. Psyllium B. Bisacodyl C. Loperamide D. Ondansetron
Rationale: Bisacodyl is a stimulant laxative that stimulates peristalsis in the colon, promoting bowel movements. It is commonly used to relieve constipation. Psyllium (option A) is a bulk-forming laxative, loperamide (option C) is an antidiarrheal medication, and ondansetron (option D) is an antiemetic, all of which have different uses and mechanisms of action.
NCLEX Question 127: A 45-year-old patient with a history of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) experiences frequent episodes of heartburn and regurgitation of stomach contents into the esophagus. The healthcare provider prescribes a medication that forms a protective barrier over the mucosa of the esophagus, preventing further damage from gastric acid. Which medication has been prescribed for this patient?
Multiple Choice Answers: A. Ranitidine B. Sucralfate C. Omeprazole D. Metoclopramide
Rationale: Sucralfate is a cytoprotective agent that forms a protective barrier over the mucosa of the esophagus, preventing further damage from gastric acid. It is commonly used in the management of GERD and peptic ulcer disease. Ranitidine (option A) is an H2 receptor antagonist, omeprazole (option C) is a proton pump inhibitor (PPI), and metoclopramide (option D) is a prokinetic agent, all of which have different mechanisms of action.
NCLEX Question 128: A 55-year-old patient with a history of chronic constipation has been prescribed a medication that increases peristalsis in the colon and softens the stool by drawing water into the intestines. Which medication has been prescribed for this patient?
Multiple Choice Answers: A. Psyllium B. Bisacodyl C. Loperamide D. Lubiprostone
Rationale: Lubiprostone is a medication that increases peristalsis in the colon and softens the stool by drawing water into the intestines. It is commonly used to treat chronic constipation and irritable bowel syndrome with constipation (IBS-C). Psyllium (option A) is a bulk-forming laxative, bisacodyl (option B) is a stimulant laxative, and loperamide (option C) is an antidiarrheal medication, all of which have different uses and mechanisms of action.
NCLEX Question 129: A 50-year-old patient with a history of inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) experiences frequent episodes of diarrhea with blood in the stool. The healthcare provider prescribes a medication that reduces inflammation in the intestines and suppresses the immune response. Which medication has been prescribed for this patient?
Multiple Choice Answers: A. Psyllium B. Mesalamine C. Loperamide D. Ondansetron
Rationale: Mesalamine is an anti-inflammatory medication that is used to reduce inflammation in the intestines and suppress the immune response in patients with IBD, such as Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis. It can help alleviate symptoms like diarrhea and bloody stools. Psyllium (option A) is a bulk-forming laxative, loperamide (option C) is an antidiarrheal medication, and ondansetron (option D) is an antiemetic, all of which have different uses and mechanisms of action.
NCLEX Question 130: A 35-year-old patient with a history of motion sickness is planning a long car trip and wants a medication to prevent nausea and vomiting. Which medication is most suitable for this patient?
Multiple Choice Answers: A. Psyllium B. Bisacodyl C. Loperamide D. Dimenhydrinatenete
Rationale: Dimenhydrinate is an antihistamine that is commonly used to prevent motion sickness and associated nausea and vomiting. Psyllium (option A) is a bulk-forming laxative, bisacodyl (option B) is a stimulant laxative, and loperamide (option C) is an antidiarrheal medication, all of which have different uses and mechanisms of action.
NCLEX Question 131: A 40-year-old patient with a history of peptic ulcer disease is experiencing an acute exacerbation with severe epigastric pain and signs of upper gastrointestinal bleeding. The healthcare provider prescribes a medication that promotes vasoconstriction of blood vessels in the gastrointestinal mucosa and reduces gastric acid secretion. Which medication has been prescribed for this patient?
Multiple Choice Answers: A. Sucralfate B. Ranitidine C. Omeprazole D. Octreotide
Rationale: Octreotide is a medication that promotes vasoconstriction of blood vessels in the gastrointestinal mucosa and reduces gastric acid secretion. It is used in the management of acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding, particularly in patients with peptic ulcer disease. Sucralfate (option A) is a cytoprotective agent, ranitidine (option B) is an H2 receptor antagonist, and omeprazole (option C) is a proton pump inhibitor (PPI), all of which have different mechanisms of action.
NCLEX Question 132: A 65-year-old patient with a history of chronic constipation has been prescribed a medication that increases fluid secretion in the small intestine, facilitating bowel movements. Which medication has been prescribed for this patient?
Multiple Choice Answers: A. Psyllium B. Bisacodyl C. Lubiprostone D. Ondansetron
Rationale: Lubiprostone is a medication that increases fluid secretion in the small intestine, facilitating bowel movements. It is commonly used to treat chronic constipation and irritable bowel syndrome with constipation (IBS-C). Psyllium (option A) is a bulk-forming laxative, bisacodyl (option B) is a stimulant laxative, and ondansetron (option D) is an antiemetic, all of which have different uses and mechanisms of action.
NCLEX Question 133: A 55-year-old patient with a history of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) experiences frequent episodes of heartburn and regurgitation despite lifestyle modifications. The healthcare provider prescribes a medication that blocks the proton pump in parietal cells, reducing gastric acid secretion. Which medication has been prescribed for this patient?
Multiple Choice Answers: A. Sucralfate B. Ranitidine C. Omeprazole D. Metoclopramide
Rationale: Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) that blocks the proton pump in parietal cells, reducing gastric acid secretion. It is commonly used to treat GERD and peptic ulcer disease when other treatments are ineffective. Sucralfate (option A) is a cytoprotective agent, ranitidine (option B) is an H2 receptor antagonist, and metoclopramide (option D) is a prokinetic agent, all of which have different mechanisms of action.
NCLEX Question 134: A 45-year-old patient with a history of chronic diarrhea and fecal incontinence due to irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is prescribed a medication that slows down colonic transit time and increases stool consistency. Which medication has been prescribed for this patient?
Multiple Choice Answers: A. Psyllium B. Bisacodyl C. Loperamide D. Lubiprostone
Rationale: Lubiprostone is a medication that slows down colonic transit time and increases stool consistency. It is commonly used to manage chronic diarrhea and fecal incontinence in patients with IBS-C. Psyllium (option A) is a bulk-forming laxative, bisacodyl (option B) is a stimulant laxative, and loperamide (option C) is an antidiarrheal medication, all of which have different uses and mechanisms of action.
NCLEX Question 135: A 30-year-old patient with a history of peptic ulcer disease is prescribed a medication that enhances mucosal protection by forming a protective barrier over the gastric and duodenal mucosa. Which medication has been prescribed for this patient?
Multiple Choice Answers: A. Sucralfate B. Ranitidine C. Omeprazole D. Octreotide
Rationale: Sucralfate is a cytoprotective agent that enhances mucosal protection by forming a protective barrier over the gastric and duodenal mucosa. It is commonly used in the management of peptic ulcer disease. Ranitidine (option B) is an H2 receptor antagonist, omeprazole (option C) is a proton pump inhibitor (PPI), and octreotide (option D) is used to treat acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding, all of which have different mechanisms of action.
NCLEX Question 136: A 50-year-old patient with a history of chronic constipation is prescribed a medication that softens the stool by increasing water retention in the colon. Which medication has been prescribed for this patient?
Multiple Choice Answers: A. Psyllium B. Bisacodyl C. Loperamide D. Docusate
Rationale: Docusate is a stool softener that works by increasing water retention in the colon, resulting in softer stools. It is commonly used to relieve constipation. Psyllium (option A) is a bulk-forming laxative, bisacodyl (option B) is a stimulant laxative, and loperamide (option C) is an antidiarrheal medication, all of which have different uses and mechanisms of action.
NCLEX Question 137: A 65-year-old patient with a history of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) experiences frequent episodes of heartburn and regurgitation, especially at night. The healthcare provider prescribes a medication that works by reinforcing the lower esophageal sphincter and promoting gastric emptying. Which medication has been prescribed for this patient?
Multiple Choice Answers: A. Sucralfate B. Ranitidine C. Omeprazole D. Metoclopramide
Rationale: Metoclopramide is a prokinetic agent that works by reinforcing the lower esophageal sphincter and promoting gastric emptying. It is commonly used to manage GERD and gastroesophageal reflux symptoms, especially at night. Sucralfate (option A) is a cytoprotective agent, ranitidine (option B) is an H2 receptor antagonist, and omeprazole (option C) is a proton pump inhibitor (PPI), all of which have different mechanisms of action.
NCLEX Question 138: A 40-year-old patient with a history of chronic constipation has been prescribed a medication that increases the frequency and strength of colonic contractions to facilitate bowel movements. Which medication has been prescribed for this patient?
Multiple Choice Answers: A. Psyllium B. Bisacodyl C. Loperamide D. Prucalopride
Rationale: Prucalopride is a medication that increases the frequency and strength of colonic contractions, facilitating bowel movements. It is commonly used to treat chronic constipation. Psyllium (option A) is a bulk-forming laxative, bisacodyl (option B) is a stimulant laxative, and loperamide (option C) is an antidiarrheal medication, all of which have different uses and mechanisms of action.
NCLEX Question 139: A 55-year-old patient with a history of chronic diarrhea has been prescribed a medication that reduces fluid secretion in the small intestine, helping to control diarrhea. Which medication has been prescribed for this patient?
Multiple Choice Answers: A. Psyllium B. Bisacodyl C. Cholestyramine D. Ondansetron
Rationale: Cholestyramine is a bile acid sequestrant that reduces fluid secretion in the small intestine by binding to bile acids, helping to control diarrhea. It is commonly used in the management of chronic diarrhea, particularly when bile acid malabsorption is a contributing factor. Psyllium (option A) is a bulk-forming laxative, bisacodyl (option B) is a stimulant laxative, and ondansetron (option D) is an antiemetic, all of which have different uses and mechanisms of action.
NCLEX Question 140: A 30-year-old patient with a history of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) experiences frequent episodes of heartburn and regurgitation, especially after meals. The healthcare provider prescribes a medication that works by neutralizing gastric acid, providing rapid relief from symptoms. Which medication has been prescribed for this patient?
Multiple Choice Answers: A. Sucralfate B. Ranitidine C. Omeprazole D. Antacids (e.g., calcium carbonate)
Rationale: Antacids, such as calcium carbonate, work by neutralizing gastric acid, providing rapid relief from symptoms of heartburn and regurgitation. They are commonly used for short-term relief of GERD symptoms. Sucralfate (option A) is a cytoprotective agent, ranitidine (option B) is an H2 receptor antagonist, and omeprazole (option C) is a proton pump inhibitor (PPI), all of which have different mechanisms of action.
NCLEX Question 141: A 60-year-old patient with a history of hypertension is prescribed a medication that acts by inhibiting the angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) to reduce blood pressure. Which medication has been prescribed for this patient?
Multiple Choice Answers: A. Losartan B. Amlodipine C. Enalapril D. Hydrochlorothiazide
Rationale: Enalapril is an ACE inhibitor that reduces blood pressure by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, a potent vasoconstrictor. It is commonly used in the treatment of hypertension. Losartan (option A) is an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB), amlodipine (option B) is a calcium channel blocker, and hydrochlorothiazide (option D) is a diuretic, all of which have different mechanisms of action.
NCLEX Question 142: A 70-year-old patient with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed a medication that inhibits vitamin K-dependent clotting factors to prevent the formation of blood clots. Which medication has been prescribed for this patient?
Multiple Choice Answers: A. Warfarin B. Clopidogrel C. Aspirin D. Heparin
agent but works differently from clopidogrel, and heparin (option D) is an injectable anticoagulant with a different mechanism of action.
NCLEX Question 143: A 50-year-old patient with a history of angina complains of chest pain that occurs with exertion and is relieved by rest. The healthcare provider prescribes a medication that dilates coronary arteries, increasing blood flow to the myocardium. Which medication has been prescribed for this patient?
Multiple Choice Answers: A. Propranolol B. Nitroglycerin C. Clopidogrel D. Furosemide
Rationale: Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator that dilates coronary arteries, increasing blood flow to the myocardium. It is commonly used to relieve angina symptoms. Propranolol (option A) is a beta-blocker, clopidogrel (option C) is an antiplatelet agent, and furosemide (option D) is a diuretic, all of which have different mechanisms of action.
NCLEX Question 144: A 45-year-old patient with a history of heart failure is prescribed a medication that inhibits the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS) by blocking angiotensin II receptors. Which medication has been prescribed for this patient?
Multiple Choice Answers: A. Enalapril B. Amlodipine C. Losartan D. Hydrochlorothiazide
Rationale: Losartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB) that inhibits the RAAS by blocking angiotensin II receptors. It is commonly used in the treatment of heart failure and hypertension. Enalapril (option A) is an ACE inhibitor, amlodipine (option B) is a calcium channel blocker, and hydrochlorothiazide (option D) is a diuretic, all of which have different mechanisms of action.
NCLEX Question 145: A 55-year-old patient with a history of myocardial infarction is prescribed a medication that reduces myocardial oxygen demand by decreasing heart rate and contractility. Which medication has been prescribed for this patient?
Multiple Choice Answers: A. Nitroglycerin B. Clopidogrel C. Propranolol D. Furosemide
Rationale: Propranolol is a beta-blocker that reduces myocardial oxygen demand by decreasing heart rate and contractility. It is commonly used in the management of myocardial infarction and angina. Nitroglycerin (option A) is a vasodilator, clopidogrel (option B) is an antiplatelet agent, and furosemide (option D) is a diuretic, all of which have different mechanisms of action.
NCLEX Question 146: A 60-year-old patient with a history of hypertension is prescribed a medication that relaxes arterial smooth muscle by blocking calcium channels. Which medication has been prescribed for this patient?
Multiple Choice Answers: A. Enalapril B. Amlodipine C. Losartan D. Hydrochlorothiazide
Rationale: Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker that relaxes arterial smooth muscle by blocking calcium channels. It is commonly used in the treatment of hypertension. Enalapril (option A) is an ACE inhibitor, losartan (option C) is an ARB, and hydrochlorothiazide (option D) is a diuretic, all of which have different mechanisms of action.
NCLEX Question 147: A 70-year-old patient with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed a medication that inhibits platelet aggregation and reduces the risk of stroke. Which medication has been prescribed for this patient?
Multiple Choice Answers: A. Warfarin B. Clopidogrel C. Aspirin D. Heparin
Rationale: Aspirin is an antiplatelet agent that inhibits platelet aggregation and reduces the risk of stroke in patients with atrial fibrillation. Warfarin (option A) is an oral anticoagulant, clopidogrel (option B) is another antiplatelet agent, and heparin (option D) is an injectable anticoagulant, all of which have different mechanisms of action.
NCLEX Question 148: A 55-year-old patient with a history of heart failure is prescribed a medication that inhibits the effect of aldosterone, leading to sodium and water excretion and potassium retention. Which medication has been prescribed for this patient?
Multiple Choice Answers: A. Enalapril B. Amlodipine C. Losartan D. Spironolactone
Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that inhibits the effect of aldosterone, leading to sodium and water excretion and potassium retention. It is commonly used in the management of heart failure. Enalapril (option A) is an ACE inhibitor, amlodipine (option B) is a calcium channel blocker, and losartan (option C) is an ARB, all of which have different mechanisms of action.
NCLEX Question 149: A 65-year-old patient with a history of angina is prescribed a medication that reduces blood pressure by blocking beta1 receptors in the heart, resulting in decreased heart rate and contractility. Which medication has been prescribed for this patient?
Multiple Choice Answers: A. Nitroglycerin B. Clopidogrel C. Propranolol D. Furosemide
Rationale: Propranolol is a beta-blocker that reduces blood pressure by blocking beta1 receptors in the heart, resulting in decreased heart rate and contractility. It is commonly used in the management of angina and hypertension. Nitroglycerin (option A) is a vasodilator, clopidogrel (option B) is an antiplatelet agent, and furosemide (option D) is a diuretic, all of which have different mechanisms of action.
NCLEX Question 150: A 45-year-old patient with a history of myocardial infarction is prescribed a medication that inhibits platelet aggregation and reduces the risk of recurrent cardiovascular events. Which medication has been prescribed for this patient?
Multiple Choice Answers: A. Warfarin B. Clopidogrel C. Aspirin D. Heparin
Rationale: Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet agent that inhibits platelet aggregation and reduces the risk of recurrent cardiovascular events, making it a common choice for patients with a history of myocardial infarction. Warfarin (option A) is an oral anticoagulant, aspirin (option C) is another antiplatelet agent, and heparin (option D) is an injectable anticoagulant, all of which have different mechanisms of action.
NCLEX Question 151: A 55-year-old patient with a history of hypertension and angina is prescribed a medication that relaxes arterial smooth muscle by blocking calcium channels and also reduces heart rate and contractility. Which medication has been prescribed for this patient?
Multiple Choice Answers: A. Enalapril B. Amlodipine C. Losartan D. Diltiazem
Rationale: Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker that relaxes arterial smooth muscle by blocking calcium channels and also reduces heart rate and contractility. It is commonly used in the treatment of hypertension and angina. Enalapril (option A) is an ACE inhibitor, amlodipine (option B) is another calcium channel blocker, and losartan (option C) is an ARB, all of which have different mechanisms of action.
NCLEX Question 152: A 70-year-old patient with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed a medication that directly inhibits thrombin, a key enzyme in the coagulation cascade. Which medication has been prescribed for this patient?
Multiple Choice Answers: A. Warfarin B. Clopidogrel C. Aspirin D. Dabigatran
Rationale: Dabigatran is a direct thrombin inhibitor that directly inhibits thrombin, a key enzyme in the coagulation cascade. It is commonly used as an anticoagulant in patients with atrial fibrillation to reduce the risk of stroke. Warfarin (option A) is an oral anticoagulant with a different mechanism of action, clopidogrel (option B) is an antiplatelet agent, and aspirin (option C) is another antiplatelet agent, both of which work differently from dabigatran.
NCLEX Question 153: A 60-year-old patient with a history of heart failure is prescribed a medication that inhibits the sodium-potassium pump in myocardial cells, leading to increased intracellular calcium levels and improved myocardial contractility. Which medication has been prescribed for this patient?
Multiple Choice Answers: A. Enalapril B. Amlodipine C. Digoxin D. Spironolactone
Rationale: Digoxin is an inotropic agent that inhibits the sodium-potassium pump in myocardial cells, leading to increased intracellular calcium levels and improved myocardial contractility. It is commonly used in the treatment of heart failure. Enalapril (option A) is an ACE inhibitor, amlodipine (option B) is a calcium channel blocker, and spironolactone (option D) is a potassium-sparing diuretic, all of which have different mechanisms of action.
NCLEX Question 154: A 65-year-old patient with a history of hypertension is prescribed a medication that reduces blood pressure by blocking alpha1 receptors on arterial smooth muscle, resulting in vasodilation. Which medication has been prescribed for this patient?
Multiple Choice Answers: A. Enalapril B. Amlodipine C. Losartan D. Prazosin
Rationale: Prazosin is an alpha1-adrenergic blocker that reduces blood pressure by blocking alpha1 receptors on arterial smooth muscle, resulting in vasodilation. It is commonly used in the treatment of hypertension. Enalapril (option A) is an ACE inhibitor, amlodipine (option B) is a calcium channel blocker, and losartan (option C) is an ARB, all of which have different mechanisms of action.
NCLEX Question 155: A 70-year-old patient with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed a medication that inhibits the formation of thromboxane A2, reducing platelet aggregation and the risk of arterial thrombosis. Which medication has been prescribed for this patient?
Multiple Choice Answers: A. Warfarin B. Clopidogrel C. Aspirin D. Heparin
Rationale: Aspirin inhibits the formation of thromboxane A2, reducing platelet aggregation and the risk of arterial thrombosis. It is commonly used in patients with atrial fibrillation to reduce the risk of stroke. Warfarin (option A) is an oral anticoagulant, clopidogrel (option B) is an antiplatelet agent, and heparin (option D) is an injectable anticoagulant, all of which have different mechanisms of action.
NCLEX Question 156: A 55-year-old patient with a history of heart failure is prescribed a medication that reduces afterload by blocking alpha1 receptors on arterial smooth muscle. Which medication has been prescribed for this patient?
Multiple Choice Answers: A. Enalapril B. Amlodipine C. Losartan D. Carvedilol
Rationale: Carvedilol is a non-selective beta-blocker that also blocks alpha1 receptors on arterial smooth muscle, reducing afterload and improving cardiac function. It is commonly used in the treatment of heart failure. Enalapril (option A) is an ACE inhibitor, amlodipine (option B) is a calcium channel blocker, and losartan (option C) is an ARB, all of which have different mechanisms of action.
NCLEX Question 157: A 60-year-old patient with a history of hypertension and diabetes is prescribed a medication that dilates peripheral blood vessels by activating guanylate cyclase and increasing cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP) levels. Which medication has been prescribed for this patient?
Multiple Choice Answers: A. Enalapril B. Amlodipine C. Nitroglycerin D. Hydralazine
Rationale: Hydralazine dilates peripheral blood vessels by activating guanylate cyclase and increasing cGMP levels, resulting in vasodilation. It is commonly used in the treatment of hypertension. Enalapril (option A) is an ACE inhibitor, amlodipine (option B) is a calcium channel blocker, and nitroglycerin (option C) is a vasodilator with a different mechanism of action.
NCLEX Question 158: A 75-year-old patient with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed a medication that inhibits factor Xa, a key factor in the coagulation cascade. Which medication has been prescribed for this patient?
Multiple Choice Answers: A. Warfarin B. Clopidogrel C. Aspirin D. Rivaroxaban
Rationale: Rivaroxaban is a factor Xa inhibitor that inhibits factor Xa, a key factor in the coagulation cascade. It is commonly used as an anticoagulant in patients with atrial fibrillation to reduce the risk of stroke. Warfarin (option A) is an oral anticoagulant, clopidogrel (option B) is an antiplatelet agent, and aspirin (option C) is another antiplatelet agent, all of which have different mechanisms of action.
NCLEX Question 159: A 50-year-old patient with a history of angina is prescribed a medication that reduces myocardial oxygen demand by dilating coronary arteries and reducing preload. Which medication has been prescribed for this patient?
Multiple Choice Answers: A. Nitroglycerin B. Clopidogrel C. Propranolol D. Furosemide
Rationale: Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator that reduces myocardial oxygen demand by dilating coronary arteries and reducing preload. It is commonly used to relieve angina symptoms. Clopidogrel (option B) is an antiplatelet agent, propranolol (option C) is a beta-blocker, and furosemide (option D) is a diuretic, all of which have different mechanisms of action.
NCLEX Question 160: A 45-year-old patient with a history of myocardial infarction is prescribed a medication that inhibits platelet aggregation and reduces the risk of recurrent cardiovascular events. Which medication has been prescribed for this patient?
Multiple Choice Answers: A. Warfarin B. Clopidogrel C. Aspirin D. Heparin
Rationale: . Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet agent that inhibits platelet aggregation and reduces the risk of recurrent cardiovascular events, making it a common choice for patients with a history of myocardial infarction. Warfarin (option A) is an oral anticoagulant, aspirin (option C) is another antiplatelet agent, and heparin (option D) is an injectable anticoagulant, all of which have different mechanisms of action.
NCLEX Question 161: A 30-year-old patient with a history of depression has been prescribed a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) to manage symptoms. This medication primarily works by:
Multiple Choice Answers: A. Blocking dopamine receptors B. Increasing norepinephrine release C. Blocking the reuptake of serotonin D. Increasing gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) levels
Rationale: SSRIs like fluoxetine work by blocking the reuptake of serotonin in the synaptic cleft, thereby increasing serotonin levels in the brain. This is thought to improve mood and alleviate symptoms of depression. Options A, B, and D describe actions of other classes of psychiatric medications and are not the primary mechanism of action for SSRIs.
NCLEX Question 162: A 45-year-old patient with schizophrenia has been prescribed a second-generation antipsychotic medication. These medications are preferred over first-generation antipsychotics because they:
Multiple Choice Answers: A. Have a lower risk of extrapyramidal side effects B. Block serotonin receptors more effectively C. Are more affordable D. Are less likely to cause agranulocytosis
Rationale: Second-generation antipsychotic medications are preferred over first-generation ones because they have a lower risk of extrapyramidal side effects, such as parkinsonism and tardive dyskinesia. While they do have different side effect profiles, extrapyramidal side effects are less common with second-generation antipsychotics. Options B, C, and D do not accurately reflect the primary reason for their preference.
NCLEX Question 163: A 22-year-old patient with bipolar disorder is prescribed lithium carbonate as part of their treatment plan. The primary purpose of lithium in the management of bipolar disorder is to:
Multiple Choice Answers: A. Enhance the effects of serotonin B. Stabilize mood and prevent manic episodes C. Induce sleep D. Reduce anxiety
Rationale: Lithium is commonly used in the management of bipolar disorder to stabilize mood and prevent manic episodes. It does not directly enhance serotonin (option A) or induce sleep (option C). While it may have some anxiolytic effects, reducing anxiety is not its primary purpose (option D).
NCLEX Question 164: A 55-year-old patient with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is prescribed a medication that enhances the effects of gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) in the brain. This medication primarily works by:
Multiple Choice Answers: A. Blocking serotonin receptors B. Increasing norepinephrine release C. Blocking the reuptake of dopamine D. Increasing GABA activity
Rationale: Medications that enhance the effects of GABA in the brain, leading to anxiolytic (anxiety-reducing) effects. Options A, B, and C describe actions of other classes of psychiatric medications.
NCLEX Question 165: A 25-year-old patient with attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) is prescribed a stimulant medication. These medications are thought to improve symptoms of ADHD by primarily:
Multiple Choice Answers: A. Increasing dopamine and norepinephrine release B. Blocking serotonin receptors C. Enhancing GABA activity D. Blocking the reuptake of acetylcholine
Rationale: Stimulant medications used to treat ADHD, such as methylphenidate and amphetamine, primarily work by increasing the release of dopamine and norepinephrine in the brain, which helps improve attention and focus. Options B, C, and D describe actions of other classes of psychiatric medications and are not the primary mechanism of action for stimulants.
NCLEX Question 166: A 35-year-old patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is prescribed a medication that primarily acts on the serotonin system by inhibiting the reuptake of serotonin. This medication belongs to which class of drugs?
Multiple Choice Answers: A. Antipsychotics B. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) C. First-generation antipsychotics D. Mood stabilizers
Rationale: SSRIs primarily act on the serotonin system by inhibiting the reuptake of serotonin. They are commonly used in the treatment of OCD and various mood disorders. Options A, C, and D represent different classes of drugs with different mechanisms of action.
NCLEX Question 167: A 40-year-old patient with schizophrenia is prescribed a medication that primarily works by blocking dopamine receptors in the brain. This medication belongs to which class of drugs?
Multiple Choice Answers: A. Antidepressants B. Anxiolytics C. First-generation antipsychotics D. Mood stabilizers
Rationale: First-generation antipsychotic medications primarily work by blocking dopamine receptors in the brain. They are commonly used in the treatment of schizophrenia. Options A, B, and D represent different classes of drugs with different mechanisms of action.
NCLEX Question 168: A 50-year-old patient with major depressive disorder is prescribed a medication that primarily enhances the effects of norepinephrine and serotonin in the brain by blocking their reuptake. This medication belongs to which class of drugs?
Multiple Choice Answers: A. Haldol B. Antipsychotics C. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) D. Mood stabilizers
Rationale: Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) primarily enhance the effects of norepinephrine and serotonin in the brain by blocking their reuptake. They are used in the treatment of major depressive disorder. Options A, B, and D represent different classes of drugs with different mechanisms of action.
NCLEX Question 169: A 30-year-old patient with schizophrenia is prescribed a medication that primarily works by blocking serotonin receptors. This medication belongs to which class of drugs?
Multiple Choice Answers: A. Antidepressants B. Anxiolytics C. Second-generation antipsychotics D. Mood stabilizers
Rationale: Second-generation antipsychotic medications primarily work by blocking both dopamine and serotonin receptors in the brain. They are commonly used in the treatment of schizophrenia and other psychotic disorders. Options A, B, and D represent different classes of drugs with different mechanisms of action.
