Free AANP Practice Questions QBank, Test 10

Pleural Effusion, HEMOTHORAX, nclex, AANP, ANCC, Questions
Pleural Effusion

A 60-year-old patient with a history of asthma presents with shortness of breath and cough. On examination, you note wheezing and decreased breath sounds. Chest X-ray reveals hyperinflation and flattening of the diaphragms. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?

A) Administer a short-acting beta-agonist (SABA)
B) Increase the inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) dose
C) Start oral corticosteroids
D) Refer to a pulmonologist
E) Initiate continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)

Rationale: This patient is experiencing an acute asthma exacerbation. Initial management involves administering a short-acting beta-agonist (SABA) to relieve bronchospasm.

A 65-year-old patient with a long history of smoking presents with worsening dyspnea and productive cough. The patient has a known diagnosis of COPD. On examination, you note decreased breath sounds, wheezing, and increased anterior-posterior chest diameter. Chest X-ray reveals hyperinflation and flattened diaphragms. Arterial blood gas analysis shows a PaO2 of 55 mm Hg and a PaCO2 of 60 mm Hg. Which of the following is the most likely complication in this patient?

A) Pneumonia
B) Pulmonary embolism
C) Acute exacerbation of COPD
D) Lung cancer
E) Congestive heart failure

Rationale: This patient’s worsening dyspnea, wheezing, and ABG findings are indicative of an acute exacerbation of COPD, a common complication in patients with COPD.

A 45-year-old patient presents with a 3-week history of abdominal pain, bloating, and diarrhea. The patient describes stools as greasy and foul-smelling. On examination, you note pallor and muscle wasting. Laboratory tests reveal microcytic anemia and low serum albumin. Which of the following complications is most likely associated with this patient’s condition?

A) Colorectal cancer
B) Crohn’s disease
C) Celiac disease
D) Acute pancreatitis
E) Diverticulitis

Rationale: This patient’s symptoms, including diarrhea, steatorrhea, microcytic anemia, and low serum albumin, are suggestive of celiac disease, which can lead to malabsorption and its associated complications.

NCLEX Stomach Questions, hesi exit, nclex, aanp, ancc practice questions
Stomach anatomy affected by GERD and peptic ulcer disease

A 55-year-old patient with a history of heavy alcohol use presents with hematemesis and melena. On examination, you note signs of chronic liver disease, including hepatomegaly and spider angiomas. Which of the following complications is most likely associated with this patient’s condition?

A) Gastric ulcer
B) Mallory-Weiss tear
C) Esophageal varices
D) Peptic ulcer
E) Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)

Rationale: This patient’s history of alcohol use, signs of chronic liver disease, and upper GI bleeding are suggestive of esophageal varices, a common complication in patients with cirrhosis.

A 60-year-old patient presents with a 2-month history of abdominal pain, weight loss, and changes in bowel habits. On examination, you note a palpable mass in the right lower quadrant. Colonoscopy reveals a large, obstructing mass in the cecum. Which of the following complications is most likely associated with this patient’s condition?

A) Diverticulitis
B) Crohn’s disease
C) Colorectal cancer
D) Appendicitis
E) Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)

Rationale: This patient’s presentation, including abdominal pain, weight loss, and a palpable mass, is highly suggestive of colorectal cancer, a serious complication of gastrointestinal disease.

nclex high yield topic, Crohn's Disease
Crohn’s Disease

A 35-year-old patient with a history of ulcerative colitis presents with abdominal pain and bloody diarrhea. Colonoscopy reveals ulcerations and pseudopolyps in the colon. Which of the following complications is most likely associated with this patient’s condition?

A) Colorectal cancer
B) Crohn’s disease
C) Celiac disease
D) Acute pancreatitis
E) Diverticulitis

Rationale: This patient’s history of ulcerative colitis and colonoscopic findings of ulcerations and pseudopolyps increase the risk of colorectal cancer as a complication.

A 40-year-old patient with a history of chronic gastritis presents with severe upper abdominal pain and hematemesis. On examination, you note epigastric tenderness. Upper endoscopy reveals a gastric ulcer with a visible vessel. Which of the following complications is most likely associated with this patient’s condition?

A) Gastric cancer
B) Mallory-Weiss tear
C) Esophageal varices
D) Peptic ulcer
E) Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)

Rationale: This patient’s presentation, including severe upper abdominal pain, hematemesis, and a visible vessel on endoscopy, is suggestive of a bleeding peptic ulcer.

A 30-year-old patient with a history of Crohn’s disease presents with abdominal pain, fever, and diarrhea. Imaging studies reveal a segment of the small bowel with thickened walls and an inflammatory mass. Which of the following complications is most likely associated with this patient’s condition?

A) Diverticulitis
B) Crohn’s disease
C) Colorectal cancer
D) Appendicitis
E) Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)

Rationale: This patient’s history of Crohn’s disease and imaging findings of a thickened bowel wall and inflammatory mass are indicative of a complication related to Crohn’s disease.

Medical Surgical Nursing Questions, Abdominal pain, metabolic acidosis, NCLEX prep
Peptic Ulcer Disease

A 50-year-old patient presents with severe epigastric pain radiating to the back, nausea, and vomiting. On examination, you note jaundice and epigastric tenderness. Imaging studies reveal dilated pancreatic ducts and pancreatic inflammation. Which of the following complications is most likely associated with this patient’s condition?

A) Acute pancreatitis
B) Chronic gastritis
C) Peptic ulcer
D) Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)
E) Gastric cancer

Rationale: This patient’s presentation, including severe epigastric pain, jaundice, and imaging findings of dilated pancreatic ducts and inflammation, is consistent with acute pancreatitis as a complication.

A 45-year-old patient presents with chronic diarrhea, weight loss, and abdominal cramps. Colonoscopy reveals skip lesions, transmural inflammation, and cobblestone appearance of the colon. Which of the following complications is most likely associated with this patient’s condition?

A) Colorectal cancer
B) Crohn’s disease
C) Celiac disease
D) Acute pancreatitis
E) Diverticulitis

Rationale: This patient’s presentation, including chronic diarrhea, weight loss, cobblestone appearance, and skip lesions on colonoscopy, is indicative of Crohn’s disease as a complication.

A 55-year-old patient with a history of alcohol abuse presents with recurrent episodes of severe abdominal pain and hematemesis. On examination, you note signs of chronic liver disease. Which of the following complications is most likely associated with this patient’s condition?

A) Gastric ulcer
B) Mallory-Weiss tear
C) Esophageal varices
D) Peptic ulcer
E) Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)

Rationale: This patient’s history of alcohol abuse, signs of chronic liver disease, and upper GI bleeding are suggestive of esophageal varices, a common complication in patients with cirrhosis.

Ascites, NCLEX, AANP, AANC, Questiions and Answers, Comprehensive Guide to Liver Function Tests for NCLEX Questions: Causes, Symptoms, Treatment
Ascites secondary to advanced liver disease.

A 55-year-old patient with a history of asthma presents with persistent symptoms despite using inhaled corticosteroids (ICS). On examination, you note wheezing and diminished breath sounds. Which of the following is the most appropriate step-up in asthma therapy for this patient?

A) Increase the ICS dose
B) Add a long-acting beta-agonist (LABA)
C) Start oral corticosteroids
D) Administer a short-acting beta-agonist (SABA)
E) Switch to a leukotriene receptor antagonist

Rationale: This patient’s persistent symptoms despite ICS use suggest the need for a long-acting beta-agonist (LABA) as an add-on therapy.

A 65-year-old patient presents with a 6-month history of progressive dysphagia to solids, unintentional weight loss, and regurgitation of undigested food. Barium swallow reveals a dilated esophagus with a “bird’s beak” appearance. Which of the following complications is most likely associated with this patient’s condition?

A) Gastric cancer
B) Mallory-Weiss tear
C) Esophageal varices
D) Achalasia
E) Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)

Rationale: This patient’s presentation, including progressive dysphagia, weight loss, and “bird’s beak” appearance on barium swallow, is suggestive of achalasia as a complication.

A 45-year-old patient with a history of asthma presents with increased symptoms and decreased peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) measurements. On examination, you note wheezing and increased work of breathing. Which of the following is the most appropriate management step for this patient?

A) Administer a short-acting beta-agonist (SABA)
B) Increase the inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) dose
C) Start oral corticosteroids
D) Refer to a pulmonologist
E) Initiate continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)

Rationale: This patient’s decreased PEFR and increased symptoms indicate the need for oral corticosteroids to manage the exacerbation.

A 55-year-old patient presents with a 2-week history of burning epigastric pain that is relieved by food intake. The patient also experiences nighttime awakening due to pain. On examination, you note epigastric tenderness. Which of the following medications is the most appropriate first-line treatment for this patient’s condition?

A) Metoclopramide
B) Sucralfate
C) Ranitidine
D) Omeprazole
E) Misoprostol

Rationale: This patient’s symptoms of burning epigastric pain that improves with food intake, nighttime awakening, and epigastric tenderness are indicative of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). Proton pump inhibitors (e.g., omeprazole) are the first-line treatment for GERD.

A 40-year-old patient with a history of alcohol use disorder presents with recurrent episodes of hematemesis and melena. On examination, you note signs of chronic liver disease. Which of the following medications is the most appropriate treatment to prevent recurrent bleeding episodes in this patient?

A) H2-receptor antagonist
B) Proton pump inhibitor
C) Octreotide
D) Misoprostol
E) Antacids

Rationale: This patient’s presentation with recurrent hematemesis and melena is suggestive of bleeding esophageal varices, a complication of cirrhosis. Octreotide is used to reduce portal pressure and prevent recurrent bleeding.

A 35-year-old patient presents with a 6-month history of alternating diarrhea and constipation, along with abdominal cramps. On examination, you note tenderness in the left lower quadrant. Which of the following medications is the most appropriate treatment for this patient’s condition?

A) Omeprazole
B) Metoclopramide
C) Loperamide
D) Mesalamine
E) Alosetron

Rationale: This patient’s symptoms of alternating diarrhea and constipation, along with abdominal cramps, are suggestive of irritable bowel syndrome with diarrhea (IBS-D). Mesalamine is used to manage symptoms in patients with IBS-D.

 

A 45-year-old patient with a history of chronic gastritis presents with recurrent epigastric pain and burning, particularly after meals. Which of the following medications is the most appropriate treatment to reduce acid secretion in this patient?

A) Omeprazole
B) Sucralfate
C) Cimetidine
D) Misoprostol
E) Ranitidine

Rationale: This patient’s history of chronic gastritis and recurrent epigastric pain are indicative of increased gastric acid secretion. H2-receptor antagonists (e.g., ranitidine) are used to reduce acid secretion and relieve symptoms.

A 35-year-old patient presents with chronic diarrhea and weight loss. Colonoscopy reveals areas of inflammation and mucosal ulcerations in the colon. Which of the following medications is the most appropriate treatment for this patient’s condition?

A) Omeprazole
B) Metoclopramide
C) Loperamide
D) Mesalamine
E) Alosetron

Rationale: This patient’s presentation, including chronic diarrhea, weight loss, and colonoscopic findings of inflammation and ulcerations, suggests Crohn’s disease. Mesalamine is used to manage symptoms in patients with Crohn’s disease.

A 55-year-old patient with a history of alcohol use disorder presents with recurrent episodes of hematemesis and melena. On examination, you note signs of chronic liver disease. Which of the following medications is the most appropriate treatment to prevent recurrent bleeding episodes in this patient?

A) H2-receptor antagonist
B) Proton pump inhibitor
C) Octreotide
D) Misoprostol
E) Antacids

Rationale: This patient’s history of alcohol use disorder, signs of chronic liver disease, and recurrent upper GI bleeding are suggestive of bleeding esophageal varices. Octreotide is used to reduce portal pressure and prevent recurrent bleeding.

A 65-year-old patient presents with a 6-month history of progressive dysphagia to solids, unintentional weight loss, and regurgitation of undigested food. Barium swallow reveals a dilated esophagus with a “bird’s beak” appearance. Which of the following medications is the most appropriate treatment for this patient’s condition?

A) Omeprazole
B) Metoclopramide
C) Loperamide
D) Mesalamine
E) Botulinum toxin injection

Rationale: This patient’s presentation, including progressive dysphagia, weight loss, and a “bird’s beak” appearance on barium swallow, is suggestive of achalasia. Botulinum toxin injection is used to relax the lower esophageal sphincter and improve symptoms in achalasia.

A 28-year-old patient with a history of Crohn’s disease presents with abdominal pain, diarrhea, and fever. Imaging studies reveal a segment of the small bowel with thickened walls and an inflammatory mass. Which of the following medications is the most appropriate treatment for this patient’s condition?

A) Metoclopramide
B) Sucralfate
C) Cimetidine
D) Azathioprine
E) Infliximab

Rationale: This patient’s history of Crohn’s disease and imaging findings of a thickened bowel wall and inflammatory mass are indicative of a complication related to Crohn’s disease. Infliximab, a TNF-alpha inhibitor, is used to manage Crohn’s disease with significant inflammation.

A 60-year-old patient presents with chronic diarrhea and unintentional weight loss. Colonoscopy reveals areas of inflammation and mucosal ulcerations in the colon. Which of the following medications is the most appropriate treatment for this patient’s condition?

A) Omeprazole
B) Metronidazole
C) Loperamide
D) Mesalamine
E) Alosetron

Rationale: This patient’s presentation, including chronic diarrhea, weight loss, and colonoscopic findings of inflammation and ulcerations, suggests ulcerative colitis. Mesalamine is a first-line treatment for ulcerative colitis.

A 50-year-old patient with a history of chronic gastritis presents with recurrent epigastric pain and burning, particularly after meals. Which of the following medications is the most appropriate treatment to reduce acid secretion in this patient?

A) Omeprazole
B) Sucralfate
C) Cimetidine
D) Misoprostol
E) Ranitidine

Rationale: This patient’s history of chronic gastritis and recurrent epigastric pain are indicative of increased gastric acid secretion. H2-receptor antagonists (e.g., ranitidine) are used to reduce acid secretion and relieve symptoms.

A 65-year-old patient with a history of peptic ulcer disease presents with a 2-day history of coffee ground emesis and melena. On examination, you note epigastric tenderness. Which of the following medications is the most appropriate treatment for this patient’s condition?

A) Omeprazole
B) Metoclopramide
C) Octreotide
D) Misoprostol
E) Ranitidine

Rationale: This patient’s presentation with coffee ground emesis, melena, and epigastric tenderness suggests upper gastrointestinal bleeding, possibly from peptic ulcer disease. Proton pump inhibitors (e.g., omeprazole) are used to manage and prevent bleeding in such cases.

A 58-year-old patient with a history of COPD presents with worsening dyspnea, pedal edema, and jugular venous distension. On examination, you note bilateral crackles on lung auscultation and an S3 heart sound. Chest X-ray reveals cardiomegaly and pulmonary edema. Which of the following is the most likely complication in this patient?

A) Pneumonia
B) Pulmonary embolism
C) Acute exacerbation of COPD
D) Lung cancer
E) Congestive heart failure

Rationale: This patient’s symptoms, including pedal edema, jugular venous distension, crackles, S3 heart sound, and chest X-ray findings, are indicative of congestive heart failure, a common complication in patients with COPD.

 

A 72-year-old patient with a history of COPD presents with sudden-onset chest pain and dyspnea. On examination, you note tachycardia and tachypnea. ECG reveals sinus tachycardia and S1Q3T3 pattern. D-dimer is elevated. Which of the following is the most likely complication in this patient?

A) Pneumonia
B) Pulmonary embolism
C) Acute exacerbation of COPD
D) Lung cancer
E) Congestive heart failure

Rationale: This patient’s symptoms, including sudden-onset chest pain, dyspnea, elevated D-dimer, and ECG findings, are suggestive of a pulmonary embolism, a potential complication in patients with COPD.

A 62-year-old patient with a history of COPD presents with increasing cough, weight loss, and hemoptysis. On examination, you note decreased breath sounds over the left lung. Chest X-ray shows a mass lesion. Which of the following is the most likely complication in this patient?

A) Pneumonia
B) Pulmonary embolism
C) Acute exacerbation of COPD
D) Lung cancer
E) Congestive heart failure

Rationale: This patient’s symptoms, including weight loss, hemoptysis, decreased breath sounds, and chest X-ray findings, are indicative of lung cancer, a potential complication in patients with COPD.

A 66-year-old patient with a history of COPD presents with worsening dyspnea and productive cough. On examination, you note increased work of breathing and accessory muscle use. Chest X-ray reveals hyperinflation. Which of the following is the most likely complication in this patient?

A) Pneumonia
B) Pulmonary embolism
C) Acute exacerbation of COPD
D) Lung cancer
E) Congestive heart failure

Rationale: This patient’s worsening dyspnea, accessory muscle use, and chest X-ray findings suggest an acute exacerbation of COPD, a common complication in patients with COPD.

A 70-year-old patient with a history of COPD presents with worsening dyspnea and lower extremity edema. On examination, you note wheezing and bilateral pedal edema. Chest X-ray shows cardiomegaly. Which of the following is the most likely complication in this patient?

A) Pneumonia
B) Pulmonary embolism
C) Acute exacerbation of COPD
D) Lung cancer
E) Congestive heart failure

Rationale: This patient’s symptoms, including lower extremity edema, wheezing, and chest X-ray findings, are suggestive of congestive heart failure, a potential complication in patients with COPD.

A 60-year-old patient with a history of rheumatoid arthritis presents with fever, cough, and pleuritic chest pain. On physical examination, you note decreased breath sounds over the right lung. Chest X-ray reveals a right upper lobe infiltrate. Which of the following medications is most appropriate for the treatment of pneumonia in this patient?

A) Amoxicillin
B) Ceftriaxone and azithromycin
C) Oseltamivir
D) Vancomycin and piperacillin/tazobactam
E) Atorvastatin

Rationale: In patients with underlying rheumatoid arthritis or immunosuppressive conditions, empiric antibiotic therapy for pneumonia may require broader coverage with vancomycin and piperacillin/tazobactam.

A 50-year-old patient presents with a 1-month history of bright red blood per rectum, along with changes in bowel habits and abdominal pain. On examination, you note tenderness in the left lower quadrant. Colonoscopy reveals ulcerations and inflammation in the sigmoid colon. Which of the following medications is the most appropriate treatment for this patient’s condition?

A) Omeprazole
B) Metronidazole
C) Loperamide
D) Mesalamine
E) Ciprofloxacin

Rationale: This patient’s presentation, including bright red blood per rectum, changes in bowel habits, and sigmoid colon ulcerations, is indicative of ulcerative colitis. Mesalamine is a first-line treatment for ulcerative colitis.

Rationale: This patient’s presentation with coffee ground emesis, melena, and epigastric tenderness suggests upper gastrointestinal bleeding, possibly from peptic ulcer disease. Proton pump inhibitors (e.g., omeprazole) are used to manage and prevent bleeding in such cases.

A 75-year-old patient with a history of COPD presents with new-onset confusion and dyspnea. On examination, you note tachycardia and tachypnea. Arterial blood gas analysis reveals respiratory acidosis. Which of the following is the most likely complication in this patient?

A) Pneumonia
B) Pulmonary embolism
C) Acute exacerbation of COPD
D) Lung cancer
E) Congestive heart failure

Rationale: This patient’s new-onset confusion, respiratory acidosis, and clinical findings are consistent with an acute exacerbation of COPD, a common complication in patients with COPD.